June Weekly Quiz 7 Quiz 1 / 100 Which stroke location leads to contralateral hemiparesis affecting the leg more than the arm? Vertebral artery Anterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery Posterior cerebral artery ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). 2 / 100 In pregnancy, PE is most likely to occur in: First trimester Third trimester Postpartum period Second trimester The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. 3 / 100 First-line drug for AVNRT if vagal maneuvers fail: Digoxin Adenosine Verapamil Amiodarone Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. 4 / 100 Classic symptoms of DVT include all except: Tenderness Warmth Bruising Unilateral leg swelling Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. 5 / 100 Visual field loss in the same side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia) is due to a lesion in: Optic chiasm Occipital lobe Frontal lobe Optic nerve Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. 6 / 100 Which symptom suggests advanced liver failure? Palmar erythema Mild fatigue Right upper quadrant pain Confusion and disorientation Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. 7 / 100 Which of these patients is most at risk of Pseudomonas pneumonia? Elderly nursing home resident with tracheostomy Healthy 30-year-old man Teenager with influenza Pregnant woman in third trimester Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. 8 / 100 Phlegmasia cerulea dolens is: Arterial embolism Massive DVT with venous gangrene Hemorrhagic DVT Mild DVT It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. 9 / 100 Smoking contributes to GERD primarily by: Increasing mucus production Relaxing the LES Enhancing gastric acid secretion Narrowing the esophagus Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. 10 / 100 Ascites in cirrhosis is primarily due to: Renal failure Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia Dehydration Cardiac failure Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. 11 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in children? NAFLD Wilsonâs disease Hepatitis C Biliary atresia Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. 12 / 100 Which organism is associated with pneumonia in alcoholics? Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Legionella Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. 13 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A reversible episode of neurological dysfunction Stroke that lasts more than 24 hours Bleeding into the brain A type of epilepsy TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. 14 / 100 Which brain area, if affected, most commonly causes expressive aphasia? Brocaâs area Occipital lobe Wernickeâs area Basal ganglia Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. 15 / 100 What is the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)? Streptococcus pneumoniae Escherichia coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa Influenza virus Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. 16 / 100 Which of the following is not a common trigger of GERD? Citrus fruits Chocolate Caffeine Milk Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. 17 / 100 The development of portal hypertension in cirrhosis is due to: Splenic infarction Increased bile secretion Hepatic vein thrombosis Fibrosis obstructing blood flow Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. 18 / 100 The most common cause of TIA is: Embolism from atherosclerotic plaque Infection Epilepsy Hemorrhage Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. 19 / 100 Which of the following is a hemorrhagic stroke? Subarachnoid hemorrhage Lacunar infarct Pontine infarct Middle cerebral artery infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. 20 / 100 Which type of stroke commonly presents with vertigo, vomiting, and ataxia? Anterior cerebral artery infarct Middle cerebral artery infarct Posterior circulation stroke Lacunar infarct Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. 21 / 100 Which of the following symptoms would raise suspicion for DVT? Swelling in one leg after a long flight Bilateral leg pain Cough with sputum General fatigue Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. 22 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for TIA? Age Family history Male sex Hypertension Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. 23 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? Absent P waves for >2 seconds Inverted P waves Regular QRS complexes Short PR interval Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. 24 / 100 Which rhythm is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex? Mobitz type I Mobitz type II Sinus pause Complete heart block Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. 25 / 100 GERD results from dysfunction of which structure? Pyloric sphincter Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) Upper esophageal sphincter Duodenum GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 26 / 100 GERD is most commonly seen in which age group? Neonates Adults aged 30â60 Elderly only Children GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. 27 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke? Age Gender Smoking Family history Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. 28 / 100 Which genetic disorder causes copper accumulation and cirrhosis? Wilsonâs disease Hemochromatosis Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Gilbertâs syndrome Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. 29 / 100 Which statement about TIA is true? It always progresses to stroke It is a warning sign of possible stroke It affects only motor function It causes permanent disability TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. 30 / 100 Asterixis is a sign of: Hypoglycemia Hepatic encephalopathy Renal failure Alcoholism Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. 31 / 100 Irregularly irregular rhythm with no visible P waves is classic for: Junctional rhythm Atrial flutter Atrial fibrillation Sinus arrhythmia AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. 32 / 100 Delta waves on ECG suggest: Ventricular tachycardia Atrial fibrillation AVNRT WPW syndrome Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. 33 / 100 A lacunar stroke most commonly involves which type of vessel? Small penetrating arteries Large cerebral arteries Cerebellar arteries Jugular veins Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. 34 / 100 By definition, how long do symptoms of a TIA typically last? 48â72 hours 1â2 days Indefinitely Less than 24 hours Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. 35 / 100 Anti-HBs positivity and anti-HBc negativity suggest: &. What is the treatment of choice for pregnant women with high HBV DNA? Tenofovir Interferon-alpha No treatment Lamivudine Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. 36 / 100 Atypical pneumonia typically presents with: Dry cough and extrapulmonary symptoms Cyanosis and pleuritic chest pain Productive cough with purulent sputum Sudden high fever and lobar consolidation Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. 37 / 100 The most likely cause of early satiety in cirrhosis is: Esophageal varices Splenic infarct Massive ascites Gastric ulcers Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. 38 / 100 The cell type primarily involved in hepatic fibrosis is: Hepatocytes Kupffer cells Hepatic stellate cells (Ito cells) Cholangiocytes Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. 39 / 100 Which stroke type is associated with atrial fibrillation? Subdural hematoma Hemorrhagic stroke Lacunar stroke Embolic stroke Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. 40 / 100 Which of the following is associated with micronodular cirrhosis? Autoimmune hepatitis Alcoholic liver disease Viral hepatitis Hemochromatosis Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. 41 / 100 Which marker indicates active viral replication in hepatitis B? HBeAg Anti-HBs Anti-HBc IgG HBsAg HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. 42 / 100 Which of the following indicates past infection with HBV? HBeAg HBsAg Anti-HBs alone Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc IgG Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. 43 / 100 A patient with bradycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status needs immediate treatment. What is the first-line drug? Dopamine Isoproterenol Atropine Epinephrine Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. 44 / 100 Homans sign in DVT is: Diagnostic Always present Specific Neither sensitive nor specific Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. 45 / 100 The best indicator of HBV immunity is: HBeAg HBsAg Anti-HBc Anti-HBs Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. 46 / 100 Which of the following is not a cause of cirrhosis? Wilsonâs disease Acute pancreatitis Hemochromatosis Primary biliary cholangitis Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. 47 / 100 A patient presents with sudden dyspnea after a long flight. The most likely diagnosis is: Heart failure Pneumothorax Pulmonary embolism Asthma Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. 48 / 100 Which lab result suggests synthetic liver failure? Positive ANA Increased ALP Elevated ALT Prolonged INR The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. 49 / 100 In DVT, leg swelling is usually: Painless Bilateral Localized to the knee Unilateral DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. 50 / 100 Which inherited thrombophilia increases the risk of PE? Hypokalemia Hemophilia A Iron deficiency Factor V Leiden mutation Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. 51 / 100 Skin changes in chronic DVT include: Bullae Petechiae Hyperpigmentation Alopecia Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. 52 / 100 Which lifestyle habit worsens GERD symptoms? Morning walks Alcohol intake Frequent water drinking Fiber intake Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. 53 / 100 Spider angiomas are caused by: Vitamin C deficiency Hyperestrogenemia Hypertension B12 deficiency Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. 54 / 100 Which of the following is not a component of Virchows triad? Hypoxia Hypercoagulability Venous stasis Endothelial injury Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. 55 / 100 Pneumonia occurring â¥48 hours after hospital admission is classified as: Ventilator-associated pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia Community-acquired pneumonia Hospital-acquired pneumonia HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. 56 / 100 Smoking increases PE risk mainly by: Decreasing fibrinogen Enhancing platelet activation Raising LDL Increasing heart rate Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. 57 / 100 Which is not a complication of DVT? Chronic venous insufficiency Post-thrombotic syndrome PE Hemoptysis Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. 58 / 100 What is the treatment for symptomatic complete heart block? Digoxin Beta-blockers Permanent pacemaker Atropine Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. 59 / 100 Chronic HBV infection is defined by HBsAg presence for: 1 month 12 months 6 months 3 months Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. 60 / 100 A patient with atrial fibrillation is at risk of TIA due to: Increased blood viscosity Atrial thrombus formation Low BP Bradycardia Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. 61 / 100 Hiatal hernia contributes to GERD by: Displacing LES above diaphragm Enhancing LES tone Reducing esophageal motility Increasing gastric emptying A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. 62 / 100 Which is the most common presenting feature of DVT? Fever Swelling Leg pain Redness Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. 63 / 100 What is the typical age range for TIA patients? 45â85 years >90 years 20â40 years <20 years TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. 64 / 100 A 24-year-old college student has dry cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse infiltrates. Likely pathogen? Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. 65 / 100 The most likely pathogen in post-influenza pneumonia is: Haemophilus influenzae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae Staphylococcus aureus Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. 66 / 100 A DVT in the left leg is more common because: Left leg is more used Left iliac vein is compressed by right iliac artery Right vein is narrower Left valves are incompetent May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. 67 / 100 Which of the following is a classic sign of cirrhosis? Diaphoresis Jaundice Flushed skin Cyanosis Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. 68 / 100 Which of the following is a protective factor against GERD? Smoking Delayed gastric emptying Normal esophageal peristalsis LES incompetence Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. 69 / 100 Which marker appears first after HBV infection? HBeAg Anti-HBc IgM Anti-HBs HBsAg HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. 70 / 100 Which of the following is a typical pneumonia pathogen? Mycoplasma pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila Streptococcus pneumoniae Chlamydophila pneumoniae Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. 71 / 100 Immobilization contributes to PE by: Decreasing fibrin production Increasing cardiac output Increasing oxygen saturation Promoting venous stasis Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. 72 / 100 The most common symptom of GERD is: Vomiting Heartburn Dysphagia Hematemesis GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 73 / 100 Which of the following conditions is not associated with increased TIA risk? Hypothyroidism Hyperlipidemia Diabetes mellitus Smoking Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. 74 / 100 Which of the following is least likely to cause a TIA? Cardioembolism Subdural hematoma Small vessel disease Carotid artery stenosis Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. 75 / 100 Which of the following medications can worsen GERD? Metoprolol NSAIDs Furosemide Levothyroxine NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. 76 / 100 HBV is most commonly transmitted in developing countries via: Vertical transmission Blood transfusion Sexual contact Organ transplant Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. 77 / 100 A key precipitating factor in GERD is: Decreased gastric acid production Obesity Hypercalcemia High-fiber diet Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. 78 / 100 Which of the following is a major risk factor for PE? Asthma Oral contraceptive use Chronic bronchitis Hypothyroidism Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. 79 / 100 In cirrhosis, fibrotic tissue replaces: Kupffer cells Sinusoids Bile Hepatocytes Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. 80 / 100 Which cancer is most associated with thrombosis and PE? Pancreatic Lung Prostate Colon Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. 81 / 100 Which condition increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia? GERD Diabetes mellitus Asthma Stroke with dysphagia Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. 82 / 100 A young patient with recurrent TIAs should be evaluated for: Patent foramen ovale (PFO) Diabetes insipidus COPD Hypothyroidism PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. 83 / 100 A cirrhotic patient presents with elevated ferritin. You suspect: Wilsonâs disease Acute hepatitis Hemochromatosis Primary biliary cholangitis Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. 84 / 100 What is the most common type of stroke? Ischemic stroke Embolic stroke Subarachnoid hemorrhage Hemorrhagic stroke About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. 85 / 100 Caput medusae is: Ascitic fluid accumulation Collateral veins on the abdomen Petechiae on the chest Hyperpigmented skin Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. 86 / 100 Window period of HBV is detected by: HBsAg Anti-HBc IgM HBeAg Anti-HBs Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. 87 / 100 What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)? Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. 88 / 100 Which finding suggests poor prognosis in cirrhosis? Splenomegaly Spider nevi Hepatic encephalopathy Fatigue Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. 89 / 100 Pregnancy increases the risk of GERD due to: Increased esophageal motility Hypotension Increased gastric acid Progesterone-induced LES relaxation Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. 90 / 100 Presence of HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates: Vaccination Chronic hepatitis B Resolved infection Immunity Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. 91 / 100 What is the most common source of pulmonary embolism? Right atrium Arm veins Pulmonary artery Deep veins of the legs Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). 92 / 100 Which of the following is the most common cause of sinus bradycardia? Increased vagal tone Myocardial infarction Hyperthyroidism Hypothyroidism Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. 93 / 100 Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly seen in: Stroke Hypertension COPD Diabetes MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. 94 / 100 Atrial flutter usually has an atrial rate of: >400 bpm 250â350 bpm 60â100 bpm 100â150 bpm Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. 95 / 100 Gynecomastia in cirrhosis results from: Poor hygiene Hormonal imbalance Elevated cortisol Alcohol use Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. 96 / 100 Which surgery carries the highest PE risk? Appendectomy Hip replacement Cataract surgery Cesarean section Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. 97 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis worldwide? Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) Hepatitis C Alcohol Viral hepatitis B Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. 98 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? &. Which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in WPW with atrial fibrillation? Flecainide Amiodarone Verapamil Procainamide Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. 99 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? Stroke due to trauma A type of hemorrhagic stroke A brief, reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction A stroke with permanent damage TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. 100 / 100 Calf tenderness in DVT is due to: Nerve compression Joint effusion Muscle spasm Inflammatory response Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. Your score is Send feedback