June Weekly Quiz 7 Quiz 1 / 100 Which of the following is a hemorrhagic stroke? Pontine infarct Middle cerebral artery infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage Lacunar infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. 2 / 100 GERD results from dysfunction of which structure? Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) Upper esophageal sphincter Duodenum Pyloric sphincter GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 3 / 100 Which of the following is a typical pneumonia pathogen? Streptococcus pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila Chlamydophila pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. 4 / 100 Gynecomastia in cirrhosis results from: Alcohol use Hormonal imbalance Poor hygiene Elevated cortisol Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. 5 / 100 Pregnancy increases the risk of GERD due to: Progesterone-induced LES relaxation Hypotension Increased gastric acid Increased esophageal motility Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. 6 / 100 A patient presents with sudden dyspnea after a long flight. The most likely diagnosis is: Asthma Heart failure Pulmonary embolism Pneumothorax Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. 7 / 100 Which lifestyle habit worsens GERD symptoms? Morning walks Alcohol intake Fiber intake Frequent water drinking Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. 8 / 100 Which stroke type is associated with atrial fibrillation? Lacunar stroke Embolic stroke Subdural hematoma Hemorrhagic stroke Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. 9 / 100 Presence of HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates: Resolved infection Vaccination Chronic hepatitis B Immunity Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. 10 / 100 Which of the following is least likely to cause a TIA? Cardioembolism Small vessel disease Carotid artery stenosis Subdural hematoma Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. 11 / 100 Chronic HBV infection is defined by HBsAg presence for: 3 months 1 month 6 months 12 months Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. 12 / 100 Which of the following is the most common cause of sinus bradycardia? Hyperthyroidism Increased vagal tone Myocardial infarction Hypothyroidism Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. 13 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke? Gender Age Smoking Family history Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. 14 / 100 First-line drug for AVNRT if vagal maneuvers fail: Adenosine Amiodarone Verapamil Digoxin Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. 15 / 100 Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly seen in: Diabetes Hypertension Stroke COPD MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. 16 / 100 In DVT, leg swelling is usually: Painless Localized to the knee Unilateral Bilateral DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. 17 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for TIA? Family history Hypertension Male sex Age Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. 18 / 100 Atypical pneumonia typically presents with: Dry cough and extrapulmonary symptoms Sudden high fever and lobar consolidation Productive cough with purulent sputum Cyanosis and pleuritic chest pain Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. 19 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? Short PR interval Inverted P waves Regular QRS complexes Absent P waves for >2 seconds Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. 20 / 100 What is the most common type of stroke? Ischemic stroke Subarachnoid hemorrhage Hemorrhagic stroke Embolic stroke About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. 21 / 100 Which genetic disorder causes copper accumulation and cirrhosis? Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Gilbertâs syndrome Hemochromatosis Wilsonâs disease Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. 22 / 100 Which of the following is not a component of Virchows triad? Hypoxia Hypercoagulability Endothelial injury Venous stasis Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. 23 / 100 The most common symptom of GERD is: Hematemesis Vomiting Dysphagia Heartburn GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 24 / 100 A cirrhotic patient presents with elevated ferritin. You suspect: Acute hepatitis Primary biliary cholangitis Hemochromatosis Wilsonâs disease Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. 25 / 100 Which lab result suggests synthetic liver failure? Increased ALP Prolonged INR Positive ANA Elevated ALT The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. 26 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? &. Which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in WPW with atrial fibrillation? Amiodarone Procainamide Flecainide Verapamil Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. 27 / 100 Spider angiomas are caused by: Hyperestrogenemia Vitamin C deficiency B12 deficiency Hypertension Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. 28 / 100 Hiatal hernia contributes to GERD by: Increasing gastric emptying Reducing esophageal motility Displacing LES above diaphragm Enhancing LES tone A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. 29 / 100 GERD is most commonly seen in which age group? Elderly only Adults aged 30â60 Neonates Children GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. 30 / 100 Which marker indicates active viral replication in hepatitis B? Anti-HBs HBeAg Anti-HBc IgG HBsAg HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. 31 / 100 Caput medusae is: Hyperpigmented skin Ascitic fluid accumulation Collateral veins on the abdomen Petechiae on the chest Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. 32 / 100 What is the treatment for symptomatic complete heart block? Beta-blockers Digoxin Atropine Permanent pacemaker Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. 33 / 100 By definition, how long do symptoms of a TIA typically last? Indefinitely Less than 24 hours 1â2 days 48â72 hours Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. 34 / 100 Smoking increases PE risk mainly by: Enhancing platelet activation Decreasing fibrinogen Increasing heart rate Raising LDL Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. 35 / 100 A key precipitating factor in GERD is: Obesity High-fiber diet Hypercalcemia Decreased gastric acid production Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. 36 / 100 The most likely pathogen in post-influenza pneumonia is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa Haemophilus influenzae Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pneumoniae Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. 37 / 100 Which statement about TIA is true? It always progresses to stroke It causes permanent disability It is a warning sign of possible stroke It affects only motor function TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. 38 / 100 Which of the following is not a cause of cirrhosis? Acute pancreatitis Primary biliary cholangitis Hemochromatosis Wilsonâs disease Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. 39 / 100 Which surgery carries the highest PE risk? Cataract surgery Cesarean section Hip replacement Appendectomy Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. 40 / 100 Which of the following is a major risk factor for PE? Hypothyroidism Chronic bronchitis Asthma Oral contraceptive use Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. 41 / 100 Atrial flutter usually has an atrial rate of: 250â350 bpm 60â100 bpm 100â150 bpm >400 bpm Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. 42 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? Stroke that lasts more than 24 hours A reversible episode of neurological dysfunction A type of epilepsy Bleeding into the brain TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. 43 / 100 Calf tenderness in DVT is due to: Joint effusion Inflammatory response Muscle spasm Nerve compression Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. 44 / 100 The most likely cause of early satiety in cirrhosis is: Gastric ulcers Splenic infarct Massive ascites Esophageal varices Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. 45 / 100 Which is the most common presenting feature of DVT? Leg pain Redness Fever Swelling Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. 46 / 100 Window period of HBV is detected by: Anti-HBs HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBc IgM Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. 47 / 100 Phlegmasia cerulea dolens is: Arterial embolism Hemorrhagic DVT Massive DVT with venous gangrene Mild DVT It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. 48 / 100 Smoking contributes to GERD primarily by: Increasing mucus production Enhancing gastric acid secretion Narrowing the esophagus Relaxing the LES Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. 49 / 100 Which of the following is associated with micronodular cirrhosis? Alcoholic liver disease Hemochromatosis Autoimmune hepatitis Viral hepatitis Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. 50 / 100 Which finding suggests poor prognosis in cirrhosis? Fatigue Splenomegaly Spider nevi Hepatic encephalopathy Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. 51 / 100 A young patient with recurrent TIAs should be evaluated for: Patent foramen ovale (PFO) Hypothyroidism Diabetes insipidus COPD PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. 52 / 100 Which of the following indicates past infection with HBV? HBeAg HBsAg Anti-HBs alone Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc IgG Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. 53 / 100 Asterixis is a sign of: Alcoholism Renal failure Hepatic encephalopathy Hypoglycemia Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. 54 / 100 The most common cause of TIA is: Epilepsy Hemorrhage Embolism from atherosclerotic plaque Infection Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. 55 / 100 In pregnancy, PE is most likely to occur in: Third trimester Postpartum period First trimester Second trimester The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. 56 / 100 Which rhythm is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex? Mobitz type I Sinus pause Complete heart block Mobitz type II Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. 57 / 100 Homans sign in DVT is: Always present Specific Neither sensitive nor specific Diagnostic Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. 58 / 100 Which symptom suggests advanced liver failure? Palmar erythema Confusion and disorientation Right upper quadrant pain Mild fatigue Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. 59 / 100 Irregularly irregular rhythm with no visible P waves is classic for: Sinus arrhythmia Junctional rhythm Atrial flutter Atrial fibrillation AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. 60 / 100 A 24-year-old college student has dry cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse infiltrates. Likely pathogen? Mycoplasma pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. 61 / 100 Which marker appears first after HBV infection? Anti-HBc IgM Anti-HBs HBsAg HBeAg HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. 62 / 100 What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)? Streptococcus pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. 63 / 100 Which stroke location leads to contralateral hemiparesis affecting the leg more than the arm? Posterior cerebral artery Vertebral artery Middle cerebral artery Anterior cerebral artery ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). 64 / 100 Which brain area, if affected, most commonly causes expressive aphasia? Wernickeâs area Occipital lobe Basal ganglia Brocaâs area Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. 65 / 100 Which of the following is a classic sign of cirrhosis? Cyanosis Flushed skin Jaundice Diaphoresis Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. 66 / 100 Which of these patients is most at risk of Pseudomonas pneumonia? Teenager with influenza Pregnant woman in third trimester Healthy 30-year-old man Elderly nursing home resident with tracheostomy Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. 67 / 100 Which is not a complication of DVT? Post-thrombotic syndrome Hemoptysis PE Chronic venous insufficiency Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. 68 / 100 Which condition increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia? Stroke with dysphagia Asthma GERD Diabetes mellitus Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. 69 / 100 Which of the following medications can worsen GERD? Furosemide Levothyroxine Metoprolol NSAIDs NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. 70 / 100 Which of the following is not a common trigger of GERD? Milk Chocolate Caffeine Citrus fruits Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. 71 / 100 The development of portal hypertension in cirrhosis is due to: Increased bile secretion Fibrosis obstructing blood flow Hepatic vein thrombosis Splenic infarction Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. 72 / 100 Delta waves on ECG suggest: AVNRT WPW syndrome Ventricular tachycardia Atrial fibrillation Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. 73 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in children? NAFLD Biliary atresia Hepatitis C Wilsonâs disease Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. 74 / 100 A patient with bradycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status needs immediate treatment. What is the first-line drug? Epinephrine Atropine Isoproterenol Dopamine Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. 75 / 100 Which type of stroke commonly presents with vertigo, vomiting, and ataxia? Lacunar infarct Anterior cerebral artery infarct Posterior circulation stroke Middle cerebral artery infarct Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. 76 / 100 Anti-HBs positivity and anti-HBc negativity suggest: &. What is the treatment of choice for pregnant women with high HBV DNA? Interferon-alpha Lamivudine No treatment Tenofovir Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. 77 / 100 A lacunar stroke most commonly involves which type of vessel? Small penetrating arteries Large cerebral arteries Cerebellar arteries Jugular veins Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. 78 / 100 Which of the following symptoms would raise suspicion for DVT? General fatigue Cough with sputum Bilateral leg pain Swelling in one leg after a long flight Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. 79 / 100 HBV is most commonly transmitted in developing countries via: Blood transfusion Sexual contact Vertical transmission Organ transplant Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. 80 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis worldwide? Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) Alcohol Viral hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. 81 / 100 A patient with atrial fibrillation is at risk of TIA due to: Increased blood viscosity Atrial thrombus formation Bradycardia Low BP Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. 82 / 100 Which organism is associated with pneumonia in alcoholics? Klebsiella pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Mycoplasma pneumoniae Legionella Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. 83 / 100 Pneumonia occurring â¥48 hours after hospital admission is classified as: Ventilator-associated pneumonia Hospital-acquired pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia Community-acquired pneumonia HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. 84 / 100 Visual field loss in the same side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia) is due to a lesion in: Occipital lobe Frontal lobe Optic chiasm Optic nerve Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. 85 / 100 What is the most common source of pulmonary embolism? Pulmonary artery Deep veins of the legs Right atrium Arm veins Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). 86 / 100 Skin changes in chronic DVT include: Bullae Hyperpigmentation Petechiae Alopecia Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. 87 / 100 The cell type primarily involved in hepatic fibrosis is: Hepatic stellate cells (Ito cells) Hepatocytes Cholangiocytes Kupffer cells Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. 88 / 100 Which of the following conditions is not associated with increased TIA risk? Hypothyroidism Smoking Diabetes mellitus Hyperlipidemia Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. 89 / 100 Which of the following is a protective factor against GERD? Normal esophageal peristalsis Smoking Delayed gastric emptying LES incompetence Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. 90 / 100 Immobilization contributes to PE by: Promoting venous stasis Decreasing fibrin production Increasing cardiac output Increasing oxygen saturation Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. 91 / 100 Which inherited thrombophilia increases the risk of PE? Hemophilia A Factor V Leiden mutation Hypokalemia Iron deficiency Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. 92 / 100 Ascites in cirrhosis is primarily due to: Dehydration Renal failure Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia Cardiac failure Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. 93 / 100 What is the typical age range for TIA patients? >90 years 45â85 years <20 years 20â40 years TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. 94 / 100 In cirrhosis, fibrotic tissue replaces: Hepatocytes Sinusoids Bile Kupffer cells Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. 95 / 100 A DVT in the left leg is more common because: Left leg is more used Right vein is narrower Left valves are incompetent Left iliac vein is compressed by right iliac artery May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. 96 / 100 Classic symptoms of DVT include all except: Tenderness Unilateral leg swelling Bruising Warmth Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. 97 / 100 What is the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)? Influenza virus Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Escherichia coli Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. 98 / 100 The best indicator of HBV immunity is: HBeAg Anti-HBc HBsAg Anti-HBs Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. 99 / 100 Which cancer is most associated with thrombosis and PE? Colon Lung Prostate Pancreatic Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. 100 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A stroke with permanent damage A brief, reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction A type of hemorrhagic stroke Stroke due to trauma TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. Your score is Send feedback