June Weekly Quiz 7 Quiz 1 / 100 A young patient with recurrent TIAs should be evaluated for: Patent foramen ovale (PFO) Diabetes insipidus Hypothyroidism COPD PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. 2 / 100 Which of these patients is most at risk of Pseudomonas pneumonia? Teenager with influenza Healthy 30-year-old man Pregnant woman in third trimester Elderly nursing home resident with tracheostomy Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. 3 / 100 Which of the following is a major risk factor for PE? Hypothyroidism Chronic bronchitis Oral contraceptive use Asthma Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. 4 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for TIA? Family history Male sex Age Hypertension Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. 5 / 100 Caput medusae is: Ascitic fluid accumulation Petechiae on the chest Collateral veins on the abdomen Hyperpigmented skin Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. 6 / 100 Which of the following is not a common trigger of GERD? Caffeine Milk Citrus fruits Chocolate Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. 7 / 100 Atypical pneumonia typically presents with: Cyanosis and pleuritic chest pain Dry cough and extrapulmonary symptoms Sudden high fever and lobar consolidation Productive cough with purulent sputum Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. 8 / 100 Which of the following symptoms would raise suspicion for DVT? Cough with sputum General fatigue Swelling in one leg after a long flight Bilateral leg pain Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. 9 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? Absent P waves for >2 seconds Inverted P waves Regular QRS complexes Short PR interval Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. 10 / 100 GERD results from dysfunction of which structure? Upper esophageal sphincter Duodenum Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) Pyloric sphincter GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 11 / 100 Window period of HBV is detected by: Anti-HBc IgM HBsAg Anti-HBs HBeAg Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. 12 / 100 Presence of HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates: Chronic hepatitis B Immunity Resolved infection Vaccination Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. 13 / 100 Skin changes in chronic DVT include: Hyperpigmentation Petechiae Alopecia Bullae Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. 14 / 100 In cirrhosis, fibrotic tissue replaces: Kupffer cells Sinusoids Hepatocytes Bile Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. 15 / 100 HBV is most commonly transmitted in developing countries via: Blood transfusion Organ transplant Vertical transmission Sexual contact Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. 16 / 100 What is the treatment for symptomatic complete heart block? Permanent pacemaker Beta-blockers Digoxin Atropine Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. 17 / 100 Which of the following is not a component of Virchows triad? Endothelial injury Hypercoagulability Venous stasis Hypoxia Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. 18 / 100 Which of the following is least likely to cause a TIA? Carotid artery stenosis Small vessel disease Cardioembolism Subdural hematoma Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. 19 / 100 Which of the following is a typical pneumonia pathogen? Streptococcus pneumoniae Chlamydophila pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila Mycoplasma pneumoniae Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. 20 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? &. Which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in WPW with atrial fibrillation? Flecainide Procainamide Verapamil Amiodarone Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. 21 / 100 Irregularly irregular rhythm with no visible P waves is classic for: Junctional rhythm Atrial flutter Sinus arrhythmia Atrial fibrillation AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. 22 / 100 A 24-year-old college student has dry cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse infiltrates. Likely pathogen? Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. 23 / 100 Which brain area, if affected, most commonly causes expressive aphasia? Occipital lobe Brocaâs area Wernickeâs area Basal ganglia Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. 24 / 100 Which marker appears first after HBV infection? Anti-HBc IgM Anti-HBs HBsAg HBeAg HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. 25 / 100 What is the most common source of pulmonary embolism? Deep veins of the legs Right atrium Arm veins Pulmonary artery Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). 26 / 100 First-line drug for AVNRT if vagal maneuvers fail: Digoxin Adenosine Verapamil Amiodarone Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. 27 / 100 Which genetic disorder causes copper accumulation and cirrhosis? Gilbertâs syndrome Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Wilsonâs disease Hemochromatosis Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. 28 / 100 Pregnancy increases the risk of GERD due to: Progesterone-induced LES relaxation Increased esophageal motility Increased gastric acid Hypotension Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. 29 / 100 Immobilization contributes to PE by: Decreasing fibrin production Increasing cardiac output Increasing oxygen saturation Promoting venous stasis Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. 30 / 100 Which of the following medications can worsen GERD? Levothyroxine Metoprolol NSAIDs Furosemide NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. 31 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? Bleeding into the brain Stroke that lasts more than 24 hours A type of epilepsy A reversible episode of neurological dysfunction TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. 32 / 100 Asterixis is a sign of: Hypoglycemia Alcoholism Hepatic encephalopathy Renal failure Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. 33 / 100 Which of the following is a hemorrhagic stroke? Pontine infarct Middle cerebral artery infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage Lacunar infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. 34 / 100 Which inherited thrombophilia increases the risk of PE? Hypokalemia Iron deficiency Hemophilia A Factor V Leiden mutation Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. 35 / 100 What is the most common type of stroke? Subarachnoid hemorrhage Embolic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke Ischemic stroke About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. 36 / 100 Which organism is associated with pneumonia in alcoholics? Klebsiella pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Mycoplasma pneumoniae Legionella Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. 37 / 100 A DVT in the left leg is more common because: Left iliac vein is compressed by right iliac artery Left leg is more used Right vein is narrower Left valves are incompetent May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. 38 / 100 Which rhythm is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex? Mobitz type I Mobitz type II Sinus pause Complete heart block Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. 39 / 100 Gynecomastia in cirrhosis results from: Alcohol use Elevated cortisol Hormonal imbalance Poor hygiene Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. 40 / 100 The cell type primarily involved in hepatic fibrosis is: Hepatocytes Cholangiocytes Kupffer cells Hepatic stellate cells (Ito cells) Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. 41 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in children? Hepatitis C Wilsonâs disease NAFLD Biliary atresia Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. 42 / 100 The most common symptom of GERD is: Dysphagia Vomiting Hematemesis Heartburn GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 43 / 100 Which of the following is the most common cause of sinus bradycardia? Myocardial infarction Hyperthyroidism Hypothyroidism Increased vagal tone Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. 44 / 100 A patient presents with sudden dyspnea after a long flight. The most likely diagnosis is: Heart failure Asthma Pulmonary embolism Pneumothorax Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. 45 / 100 Visual field loss in the same side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia) is due to a lesion in: Optic nerve Optic chiasm Occipital lobe Frontal lobe Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. 46 / 100 Which of the following is not a cause of cirrhosis? Acute pancreatitis Hemochromatosis Wilsonâs disease Primary biliary cholangitis Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. 47 / 100 Ascites in cirrhosis is primarily due to: Cardiac failure Renal failure Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia Dehydration Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. 48 / 100 Which is not a complication of DVT? PE Post-thrombotic syndrome Hemoptysis Chronic venous insufficiency Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. 49 / 100 Pneumonia occurring â¥48 hours after hospital admission is classified as: Hospital-acquired pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia Community-acquired pneumonia Ventilator-associated pneumonia HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. 50 / 100 Smoking increases PE risk mainly by: Decreasing fibrinogen Enhancing platelet activation Increasing heart rate Raising LDL Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. 51 / 100 Atrial flutter usually has an atrial rate of: 100â150 bpm 60â100 bpm >400 bpm 250â350 bpm Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. 52 / 100 Which cancer is most associated with thrombosis and PE? Prostate Lung Pancreatic Colon Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. 53 / 100 Which stroke location leads to contralateral hemiparesis affecting the leg more than the arm? Middle cerebral artery Anterior cerebral artery Vertebral artery Posterior cerebral artery ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). 54 / 100 Which of the following indicates past infection with HBV? HBsAg Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc IgG HBeAg Anti-HBs alone Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. 55 / 100 Which statement about TIA is true? It is a warning sign of possible stroke It affects only motor function It causes permanent disability It always progresses to stroke TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. 56 / 100 A patient with atrial fibrillation is at risk of TIA due to: Low BP Atrial thrombus formation Bradycardia Increased blood viscosity Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. 57 / 100 The most common cause of TIA is: Embolism from atherosclerotic plaque Infection Hemorrhage Epilepsy Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. 58 / 100 Which stroke type is associated with atrial fibrillation? Hemorrhagic stroke Lacunar stroke Embolic stroke Subdural hematoma Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. 59 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? Stroke due to trauma A type of hemorrhagic stroke A stroke with permanent damage A brief, reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. 60 / 100 Which marker indicates active viral replication in hepatitis B? Anti-HBs Anti-HBc IgG HBeAg HBsAg HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. 61 / 100 Calf tenderness in DVT is due to: Muscle spasm Joint effusion Inflammatory response Nerve compression Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. 62 / 100 Homans sign in DVT is: Neither sensitive nor specific Specific Always present Diagnostic Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. 63 / 100 What is the typical age range for TIA patients? <20 years 20â40 years 45â85 years >90 years TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. 64 / 100 Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly seen in: COPD Stroke Diabetes Hypertension MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. 65 / 100 In DVT, leg swelling is usually: Painless Localized to the knee Unilateral Bilateral DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. 66 / 100 The development of portal hypertension in cirrhosis is due to: Splenic infarction Increased bile secretion Hepatic vein thrombosis Fibrosis obstructing blood flow Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. 67 / 100 A lacunar stroke most commonly involves which type of vessel? Small penetrating arteries Cerebellar arteries Large cerebral arteries Jugular veins Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. 68 / 100 Which of the following is a protective factor against GERD? Normal esophageal peristalsis Delayed gastric emptying Smoking LES incompetence Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. 69 / 100 Which finding suggests poor prognosis in cirrhosis? Splenomegaly Fatigue Spider nevi Hepatic encephalopathy Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. 70 / 100 Which of the following is associated with micronodular cirrhosis? Autoimmune hepatitis Hemochromatosis Alcoholic liver disease Viral hepatitis Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. 71 / 100 What is the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)? Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae Influenza virus Escherichia coli Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. 72 / 100 Which of the following conditions is not associated with increased TIA risk? Hyperlipidemia Diabetes mellitus Smoking Hypothyroidism Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. 73 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke? Family history Smoking Gender Age Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. 74 / 100 By definition, how long do symptoms of a TIA typically last? 48â72 hours Indefinitely Less than 24 hours 1â2 days Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. 75 / 100 The most likely pathogen in post-influenza pneumonia is: Staphylococcus aureus Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. 76 / 100 Which symptom suggests advanced liver failure? Palmar erythema Mild fatigue Right upper quadrant pain Confusion and disorientation Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. 77 / 100 Which type of stroke commonly presents with vertigo, vomiting, and ataxia? Middle cerebral artery infarct Anterior cerebral artery infarct Lacunar infarct Posterior circulation stroke Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. 78 / 100 Anti-HBs positivity and anti-HBc negativity suggest: &. What is the treatment of choice for pregnant women with high HBV DNA? Tenofovir No treatment Interferon-alpha Lamivudine Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. 79 / 100 The most likely cause of early satiety in cirrhosis is: Gastric ulcers Splenic infarct Esophageal varices Massive ascites Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. 80 / 100 Classic symptoms of DVT include all except: Warmth Bruising Tenderness Unilateral leg swelling Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. 81 / 100 Hiatal hernia contributes to GERD by: Increasing gastric emptying Reducing esophageal motility Displacing LES above diaphragm Enhancing LES tone A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. 82 / 100 Which surgery carries the highest PE risk? Cataract surgery Cesarean section Hip replacement Appendectomy Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. 83 / 100 Which lifestyle habit worsens GERD symptoms? Morning walks Fiber intake Alcohol intake Frequent water drinking Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. 84 / 100 Phlegmasia cerulea dolens is: Massive DVT with venous gangrene Hemorrhagic DVT Arterial embolism Mild DVT It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. 85 / 100 Which condition increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia? Diabetes mellitus Stroke with dysphagia Asthma GERD Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. 86 / 100 What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)? Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Klebsiella pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. 87 / 100 A key precipitating factor in GERD is: Hypercalcemia Obesity Decreased gastric acid production High-fiber diet Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. 88 / 100 Which is the most common presenting feature of DVT? Redness Fever Leg pain Swelling Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. 89 / 100 Chronic HBV infection is defined by HBsAg presence for: 3 months 1 month 12 months 6 months Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. 90 / 100 Which of the following is a classic sign of cirrhosis? Flushed skin Cyanosis Diaphoresis Jaundice Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. 91 / 100 Spider angiomas are caused by: Vitamin C deficiency B12 deficiency Hyperestrogenemia Hypertension Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. 92 / 100 A cirrhotic patient presents with elevated ferritin. You suspect: Hemochromatosis Wilsonâs disease Acute hepatitis Primary biliary cholangitis Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. 93 / 100 Which lab result suggests synthetic liver failure? Prolonged INR Increased ALP Elevated ALT Positive ANA The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. 94 / 100 The best indicator of HBV immunity is: Anti-HBs Anti-HBc HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. 95 / 100 Smoking contributes to GERD primarily by: Enhancing gastric acid secretion Narrowing the esophagus Relaxing the LES Increasing mucus production Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. 96 / 100 In pregnancy, PE is most likely to occur in: Second trimester First trimester Third trimester Postpartum period The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. 97 / 100 A patient with bradycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status needs immediate treatment. What is the first-line drug? Isoproterenol Atropine Epinephrine Dopamine Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. 98 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis worldwide? Viral hepatitis B Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) Alcohol Hepatitis C Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. 99 / 100 GERD is most commonly seen in which age group? Elderly only Adults aged 30â60 Children Neonates GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. 100 / 100 Delta waves on ECG suggest: WPW syndrome Atrial fibrillation AVNRT Ventricular tachycardia Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. Your score is Send feedback