June Weekly Quiz 7 Quiz 1 / 100 Which marker appears first after HBV infection? Anti-HBc IgM HBeAg Anti-HBs HBsAg HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. 2 / 100 Irregularly irregular rhythm with no visible P waves is classic for: Atrial fibrillation Junctional rhythm Sinus arrhythmia Atrial flutter AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. 3 / 100 Which of the following is a protective factor against GERD? Delayed gastric emptying Smoking LES incompetence Normal esophageal peristalsis Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. 4 / 100 In pregnancy, PE is most likely to occur in: Third trimester Postpartum period Second trimester First trimester The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. 5 / 100 The most likely pathogen in post-influenza pneumonia is: Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. 6 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis worldwide? Viral hepatitis B Alcohol Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) Hepatitis C Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. 7 / 100 Which organism is associated with pneumonia in alcoholics? Mycoplasma pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Legionella Pseudomonas aeruginosa Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. 8 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? &. Which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in WPW with atrial fibrillation? Verapamil Amiodarone Procainamide Flecainide Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. 9 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A type of hemorrhagic stroke A stroke with permanent damage Stroke due to trauma A brief, reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. 10 / 100 Which statement about TIA is true? It affects only motor function It is a warning sign of possible stroke It always progresses to stroke It causes permanent disability TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. 11 / 100 Anti-HBs positivity and anti-HBc negativity suggest: &. What is the treatment of choice for pregnant women with high HBV DNA? Tenofovir No treatment Interferon-alpha Lamivudine Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. 12 / 100 Which of the following is a hemorrhagic stroke? Middle cerebral artery infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage Lacunar infarct Pontine infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. 13 / 100 A key precipitating factor in GERD is: Obesity Hypercalcemia High-fiber diet Decreased gastric acid production Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. 14 / 100 What is the most common type of stroke? Ischemic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke Embolic stroke Subarachnoid hemorrhage About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. 15 / 100 Immobilization contributes to PE by: Increasing oxygen saturation Decreasing fibrin production Increasing cardiac output Promoting venous stasis Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. 16 / 100 Caput medusae is: Petechiae on the chest Hyperpigmented skin Collateral veins on the abdomen Ascitic fluid accumulation Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. 17 / 100 Which surgery carries the highest PE risk? Cesarean section Appendectomy Cataract surgery Hip replacement Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. 18 / 100 Which of the following is least likely to cause a TIA? Small vessel disease Carotid artery stenosis Cardioembolism Subdural hematoma Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. 19 / 100 Visual field loss in the same side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia) is due to a lesion in: Occipital lobe Frontal lobe Optic chiasm Optic nerve Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. 20 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke? Smoking Family history Gender Age Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. 21 / 100 GERD is most commonly seen in which age group? Neonates Adults aged 30â60 Children Elderly only GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. 22 / 100 First-line drug for AVNRT if vagal maneuvers fail: Adenosine Amiodarone Digoxin Verapamil Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. 23 / 100 Which genetic disorder causes copper accumulation and cirrhosis? Hemochromatosis Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Gilbertâs syndrome Wilsonâs disease Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. 24 / 100 What is the treatment for symptomatic complete heart block? Atropine Beta-blockers Digoxin Permanent pacemaker Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. 25 / 100 Which inherited thrombophilia increases the risk of PE? Hypokalemia Hemophilia A Iron deficiency Factor V Leiden mutation Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. 26 / 100 Which of the following symptoms would raise suspicion for DVT? Cough with sputum General fatigue Swelling in one leg after a long flight Bilateral leg pain Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. 27 / 100 Which of the following is not a common trigger of GERD? Caffeine Chocolate Citrus fruits Milk Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. 28 / 100 Which marker indicates active viral replication in hepatitis B? HBeAg HBsAg Anti-HBc IgG Anti-HBs HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. 29 / 100 The most likely cause of early satiety in cirrhosis is: Esophageal varices Splenic infarct Massive ascites Gastric ulcers Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. 30 / 100 Which brain area, if affected, most commonly causes expressive aphasia? Wernickeâs area Occipital lobe Basal ganglia Brocaâs area Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. 31 / 100 A patient with bradycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status needs immediate treatment. What is the first-line drug? Isoproterenol Atropine Epinephrine Dopamine Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. 32 / 100 Which symptom suggests advanced liver failure? Palmar erythema Right upper quadrant pain Confusion and disorientation Mild fatigue Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. 33 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A type of epilepsy Stroke that lasts more than 24 hours Bleeding into the brain A reversible episode of neurological dysfunction TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. 34 / 100 What is the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)? Streptococcus pneumoniae Influenza virus Escherichia coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. 35 / 100 Skin changes in chronic DVT include: Hyperpigmentation Petechiae Alopecia Bullae Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. 36 / 100 What is the most common source of pulmonary embolism? Right atrium Deep veins of the legs Arm veins Pulmonary artery Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). 37 / 100 Which stroke location leads to contralateral hemiparesis affecting the leg more than the arm? Middle cerebral artery Posterior cerebral artery Vertebral artery Anterior cerebral artery ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). 38 / 100 Phlegmasia cerulea dolens is: Mild DVT Massive DVT with venous gangrene Arterial embolism Hemorrhagic DVT It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. 39 / 100 A lacunar stroke most commonly involves which type of vessel? Jugular veins Large cerebral arteries Cerebellar arteries Small penetrating arteries Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. 40 / 100 The most common symptom of GERD is: Dysphagia Vomiting Hematemesis Heartburn GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 41 / 100 Which of the following is a major risk factor for PE? Asthma Hypothyroidism Oral contraceptive use Chronic bronchitis Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. 42 / 100 Hiatal hernia contributes to GERD by: Displacing LES above diaphragm Increasing gastric emptying Reducing esophageal motility Enhancing LES tone A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. 43 / 100 Calf tenderness in DVT is due to: Nerve compression Muscle spasm Inflammatory response Joint effusion Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. 44 / 100 Which type of stroke commonly presents with vertigo, vomiting, and ataxia? Middle cerebral artery infarct Anterior cerebral artery infarct Lacunar infarct Posterior circulation stroke Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. 45 / 100 Which of the following is not a cause of cirrhosis? Wilsonâs disease Hemochromatosis Acute pancreatitis Primary biliary cholangitis Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. 46 / 100 Smoking contributes to GERD primarily by: Relaxing the LES Narrowing the esophagus Enhancing gastric acid secretion Increasing mucus production Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. 47 / 100 Smoking increases PE risk mainly by: Enhancing platelet activation Increasing heart rate Decreasing fibrinogen Raising LDL Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. 48 / 100 HBV is most commonly transmitted in developing countries via: Sexual contact Blood transfusion Vertical transmission Organ transplant Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. 49 / 100 The most common cause of TIA is: Epilepsy Embolism from atherosclerotic plaque Infection Hemorrhage Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. 50 / 100 Which lab result suggests synthetic liver failure? Elevated ALT Prolonged INR Positive ANA Increased ALP The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. 51 / 100 By definition, how long do symptoms of a TIA typically last? Less than 24 hours 1â2 days Indefinitely 48â72 hours Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. 52 / 100 Ascites in cirrhosis is primarily due to: Cardiac failure Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia Dehydration Renal failure Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. 53 / 100 Spider angiomas are caused by: Hypertension B12 deficiency Vitamin C deficiency Hyperestrogenemia Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. 54 / 100 Which of the following conditions is not associated with increased TIA risk? Hyperlipidemia Smoking Hypothyroidism Diabetes mellitus Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. 55 / 100 Which cancer is most associated with thrombosis and PE? Colon Prostate Lung Pancreatic Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. 56 / 100 Which lifestyle habit worsens GERD symptoms? Morning walks Frequent water drinking Alcohol intake Fiber intake Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. 57 / 100 Which finding suggests poor prognosis in cirrhosis? Spider nevi Splenomegaly Fatigue Hepatic encephalopathy Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. 58 / 100 Which of the following is a classic sign of cirrhosis? Jaundice Diaphoresis Flushed skin Cyanosis Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. 59 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for TIA? Family history Male sex Age Hypertension Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. 60 / 100 The development of portal hypertension in cirrhosis is due to: Hepatic vein thrombosis Splenic infarction Increased bile secretion Fibrosis obstructing blood flow Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. 61 / 100 In cirrhosis, fibrotic tissue replaces: Sinusoids Hepatocytes Bile Kupffer cells Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. 62 / 100 A 24-year-old college student has dry cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse infiltrates. Likely pathogen? Mycoplasma pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. 63 / 100 Which of these patients is most at risk of Pseudomonas pneumonia? Healthy 30-year-old man Elderly nursing home resident with tracheostomy Pregnant woman in third trimester Teenager with influenza Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. 64 / 100 Atypical pneumonia typically presents with: Dry cough and extrapulmonary symptoms Productive cough with purulent sputum Sudden high fever and lobar consolidation Cyanosis and pleuritic chest pain Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. 65 / 100 A young patient with recurrent TIAs should be evaluated for: Patent foramen ovale (PFO) Diabetes insipidus Hypothyroidism COPD PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. 66 / 100 Presence of HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates: Resolved infection Vaccination Immunity Chronic hepatitis B Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. 67 / 100 Which rhythm is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex? Complete heart block Sinus pause Mobitz type I Mobitz type II Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. 68 / 100 Atrial flutter usually has an atrial rate of: 100â150 bpm >400 bpm 250â350 bpm 60â100 bpm Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. 69 / 100 The best indicator of HBV immunity is: HBsAg Anti-HBc Anti-HBs HBeAg Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. 70 / 100 Which is not a complication of DVT? Post-thrombotic syndrome Hemoptysis PE Chronic venous insufficiency Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. 71 / 100 Classic symptoms of DVT include all except: Tenderness Warmth Unilateral leg swelling Bruising Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. 72 / 100 In DVT, leg swelling is usually: Unilateral Bilateral Painless Localized to the knee DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. 73 / 100 Which condition increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia? Diabetes mellitus GERD Asthma Stroke with dysphagia Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. 74 / 100 Asterixis is a sign of: Hepatic encephalopathy Hypoglycemia Alcoholism Renal failure Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. 75 / 100 Delta waves on ECG suggest: Ventricular tachycardia AVNRT Atrial fibrillation WPW syndrome Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. 76 / 100 GERD results from dysfunction of which structure? Upper esophageal sphincter Duodenum Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) Pyloric sphincter GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 77 / 100 Which stroke type is associated with atrial fibrillation? Subdural hematoma Embolic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke Lacunar stroke Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. 78 / 100 Pneumonia occurring â¥48 hours after hospital admission is classified as: Community-acquired pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia Ventilator-associated pneumonia Hospital-acquired pneumonia HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. 79 / 100 Which of the following medications can worsen GERD? NSAIDs Metoprolol Furosemide Levothyroxine NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. 80 / 100 Homans sign in DVT is: Specific Always present Diagnostic Neither sensitive nor specific Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. 81 / 100 What is the typical age range for TIA patients? <20 years >90 years 20â40 years 45â85 years TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. 82 / 100 A patient presents with sudden dyspnea after a long flight. The most likely diagnosis is: Asthma Pulmonary embolism Pneumothorax Heart failure Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. 83 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? Regular QRS complexes Inverted P waves Short PR interval Absent P waves for >2 seconds Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. 84 / 100 What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)? Streptococcus pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. 85 / 100 Window period of HBV is detected by: Anti-HBc IgM HBsAg Anti-HBs HBeAg Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. 86 / 100 Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly seen in: Stroke Hypertension COPD Diabetes MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. 87 / 100 A DVT in the left leg is more common because: Left valves are incompetent Right vein is narrower Left leg is more used Left iliac vein is compressed by right iliac artery May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. 88 / 100 Which of the following is not a component of Virchows triad? Hypercoagulability Venous stasis Endothelial injury Hypoxia Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. 89 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in children? Hepatitis C Wilsonâs disease NAFLD Biliary atresia Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. 90 / 100 Which of the following indicates past infection with HBV? Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc IgG HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBs alone Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. 91 / 100 The cell type primarily involved in hepatic fibrosis is: Cholangiocytes Hepatic stellate cells (Ito cells) Kupffer cells Hepatocytes Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. 92 / 100 Pregnancy increases the risk of GERD due to: Increased esophageal motility Increased gastric acid Hypotension Progesterone-induced LES relaxation Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. 93 / 100 Chronic HBV infection is defined by HBsAg presence for: 1 month 3 months 6 months 12 months Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. 94 / 100 Gynecomastia in cirrhosis results from: Alcohol use Elevated cortisol Hormonal imbalance Poor hygiene Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. 95 / 100 A cirrhotic patient presents with elevated ferritin. You suspect: Primary biliary cholangitis Hemochromatosis Wilsonâs disease Acute hepatitis Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. 96 / 100 A patient with atrial fibrillation is at risk of TIA due to: Atrial thrombus formation Bradycardia Increased blood viscosity Low BP Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. 97 / 100 Which is the most common presenting feature of DVT? Redness Swelling Fever Leg pain Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. 98 / 100 Which of the following is associated with micronodular cirrhosis? Hemochromatosis Alcoholic liver disease Viral hepatitis Autoimmune hepatitis Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. 99 / 100 Which of the following is the most common cause of sinus bradycardia? Hyperthyroidism Increased vagal tone Myocardial infarction Hypothyroidism Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. 100 / 100 Which of the following is a typical pneumonia pathogen? Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydophila pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. Your score is Send feedback