1 / 40

A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasingly heavy menstrual periods during the past 2 years. Menses occur at regular intervals and last 8 days with heavy flow during the first 3 days. She takes no medications. She is sexually active with one partner and uses a diaphragm consistently. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 14- week gestation. Examination of an endometrial biopsy specimen obtained 5 days before her last menstrual period shows secretory endometrium. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

2 / 40

During a sharp curettage of an incomplete abortion, the uterine was perforated. What is the first step of management?

3 / 40

Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

4 / 40

The risk of acute bilirubin encephalopathy in a newborn is increased with the use of

5 / 40

A 34-year-old G4P4 woman is immediately postpartum from delivery of a 4.0kg baby girl at 39 weeks' gestation. Time elapsed from the onset of labor to delivery of the placenta was 6 hours. Delivery was complicated by a second-degree perineal tear. Postpartum vital signs are within normal limits when the patient begins to hemorrhage vaginally. Estimated blood loss is 300 mL so far. Bimanual examination reveals a soft, enlarged, "boggy" uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in treatment?

6 / 40

Which of the following would be most appropriate in the immediate management of a 10-month-old infant with diarrhea and severe dehydration

7 / 40

What is the diagnosis and treatment of a non-tender mass near the urethral opening in a 4 year old girl?

8 / 40

Which is true about placental abruption?

9 / 40

A child with severe haemophilia A would have an abnormal

10 / 40

A pregnant woman G2P1, GA of 39 weeks has the chief complaint of vaginal spotting. There is no sign of abruption or previa by ultrasound. What is the best management?

11 / 40

A 2-year-old presents with a three day history of refusal to bear weight on the left leg. The temperature on admission is 39°C. Initial blood work shows Haemoglobin 9.6g/dl, WBC 15 x 109/l, platelets 470 x 109/L and ESR 60mm/hr. The most likely diagnosis is

12 / 40

This is false about diabetic ketoacidosis

13 / 40

In the fetal circulation, the INCORRECT statement is:

14 / 40

Low birth weight is defined as

15 / 40

The following are characteristics of simple febrile seizures

16 / 40

What is not a reason of oligohydramnios in a woman at gestational age of 35W2D with IUGR in pregnancy?

17 / 40

Acetaminophen-induced toxicity most commonly affects the

18 / 40

Which is not among pathophysiological changes of preeclampsia?

19 / 40

Contraindication to medical therapy (Methotrexate) in tubal pregnancy is

20 / 40

Clinical features of childhood acute lymphoblastic leukaemia include

21 / 40

In Preeclampsia all are correct EXCEPT:

22 / 40

The most likely finding in the initial stages of septic shock is

23 / 40

The following are features of prematurity in a neonate except

24 / 40

In determining the Apgar score of a newborn, the following would be assessed except

25 / 40

ECG changes associated with hypokalemia include

26 / 40

An innocent murmur is likely to be

27 / 40

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are not generally used for long term tocolysis because they:

28 / 40

A 9-month-old girl may

29 / 40

A 30year old woman G3P2, gestational age of 35 weeks and BP of 190/110 is in seizure. What is the best way to control her seizure?

30 / 40

Haemorrhagic cystitis is a recognized complication of

31 / 40

A low weight for height in a three-year-old child indicates

32 / 40

Which of the following drugs IS NOT used to inhibit premature labour?

33 / 40

A 20-year-old primigravida, 32 weeks gestation, presents with profuse vaginal bleeding with pain and tenderness per abdomen. The most probable diagnosis:

34 / 40

What is wrong about vaginal hematoma after delivery?

35 / 40

What is your management of a 32 years old woman G1P0, GA of 6 weeks with an empty gestational sac, no heart beat and empty uterus on Ultrasound?

36 / 40

A 33-year-old nulligravid woman with primary infertility comes for a follow-up examination. She has been unable to conceive for 5 years; analysis of her husband's semen showed normal sperm counts. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 to 6 days. She is asymptomatic except for severe dysmenorrhea. An endometrial biopsy specimen 5 days before menses shows secretory endometrium. Hysterosalpingography 6 months ago showed normal findings. Pelvic examination shows a normal vagina and cervix. Bimanual examination shows a normal-sized uterus and no palpable adnexal masses. Rectal examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

37 / 40

In the diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome, the following tests would be useful except

38 / 40

A 19 year old woman is hospitalized for abdominal pain. Serum progesterone is 15ng/mL. Which is a true statement about her illness?

39 / 40

The following diseases are associated with the Epstein Barr virus except

40 / 40

A child born in Ghana in 2016 will routinely receive the following vaccinations except

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The average score is 63%