GMDC MOCK 3 /80 26 Quiz 1 / 80 A 40 year old woman complains of difficulty in swallowing for 3 months. During the interview, it was observed that she has difficulty in speaking after a few sentences. She also has drooping of the eyelids. She is most likely suffering from: Bulbar paralysis Diffuse spasm of the oesophageal muscles Myasthenia gravis Scleroderma 2 / 80 A 20 year old man has a tense, fluctuant, non-tender, ovoid, swelling without a cough impulse in the left groin which moves with traction on the testis. What is the most likely diagnosis? Sebaceous cyst of the scrotum Encysted hydrocele of the cord Cyst of the epididymis Irreducible incomplete inguinal hernia, probably containing omentum 3 / 80 Cause of ptosis include the following except horner syndrome myasthenia gravis 4th nerve palsy tick paralysis botulism 4 / 80 Stroke due involving the right middle cerebral artery pathology in most people usually causes the symptoms and signs below EXCEPT Motor aphasia Paralysis of lower facial muscles on the left. May cause incontinence of urine No effect on the muscles in the upper part of the face. 5 / 80 Which of the following is not part of the criteria considered for CURB 65 used to determine the severity of community pneumonia. Respiratory rate> 30 per minute Diastolic pressure <60 mm Hg. Confusion Heart rate >100 6 / 80 Which one of the drugs or measures do not worsen uraemia? Paracetamol Gentamycin Hypotension Diarrhoea 7 / 80 This is not a cause of hypoglycaemia in newborns hypoinsulinaemia sepsis prematurity infant of a diabetic mother intrauterine growth retardate 8 / 80 A 55 year old man undergoes a CT abdominal scan with contrast. Following the scan his renal function has progressively deteriorated. What is the MOSTlikely diagnosis ? Renal artery stenosis Acute tubular necrosis Rapidly progressively glomerulonephriitis Post renal obstruction 9 / 80 In bronchiolitis, all these are true except may present with with low grade fever drug of choice is acyclovir most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus primarily affects children less than 2 years old it's usually a self-limiting disease 10 / 80 The prime cause of a venous leg ulcer is: Stasis in the deep veins Varicosity of the long (greater) saphenous vein High venous pressure in the leg veins generally Failure of valves of the perforating and deep veins 11 / 80 Which of the of the following is a LEAST likely presentations of myocardial infarction ? Shock . Sharp piercing pain in the left which worsens with breathing No chest pain in an elderly female diabetic Severe crushing pain in the precordium 12 / 80 Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT: Stool routine examination Hepatitis screening Complete blood count Thyroid function Urine routine examination 13 / 80 Rupture of membranes is suspected with all of the followings EXCEPT: Observing amniotic fluid drain through the cervix during speculum examination. Pooling of amniotic fluid on speculum examination. Positive Nitrazine test. Contractions seen on the CTG. Positive Fern test. 14 / 80 Facial features of fetal alcohol syndrome include the following except ptosis short palpebral tissue thick upper lip microcephaly smooth philtrum 15 / 80 A 16 year old boy from a deprived area of Accra who is undergoing treatment for pulmonary TB reports that his urine has become 'bloody'. Which one of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis? Drug induced Renal stone Haemolysis Urinary tract infection 16 / 80 The following are treatment for simple malaria except dihydroartemisinin - piperaquine artemether - lumefantrine oral quinine artesunate - amodiaquine dihydroartemisinin - lumefantrine 17 / 80 Malignant degeneration of a healing wound is most likely to occur: When wounds are exposed to heat. When a state of chronicity from (e.g) recurrent infection prevails. When a patient is on cytotoxic agents. When iodophor antiseptics are used for dressing. 18 / 80 A bloody nipple discharge in a 35 year old West African is most likely to be caused by: Scirrhous breast carcinoma Duct ectasia Intraductal comedo-carcinoma Chronic breast abscess 19 / 80 The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with: Twin pregnancy. Labour associated with an active rate of change of 1 cm per hour. Hypotension. Epidural anesthesia. Median episiotomy. 20 / 80 Neuro hormones which are activated in cardiac failure include all EXCEPT: Nordrenaline Aldosterone Brain naturetic protein Thyroxine 21 / 80 Which of the following anti diabetic drugs increases insulin sensitivity? Metformin Glibenclamide DPP4 inhibitors Pioglitazone 22 / 80 The last menstrual period was June 20th. The expected date of delivery (EDD) is approximately: March 28. March 23. April 23. April 7. March 27. 23 / 80 The most common route of primary infection with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis is: Directly to the lung tissue establishing a Primary Complex (Gohn focus) Through the tonsils to the cervical lymph nodes. Via the payer's patches to the mesenteric lymph nodes. The genitourinary mucosa-urethra and bladder. 24 / 80 A 31 year old drug addict who uses intravenous drugs presents to your clinic with a 4 day history fever with temperatures in tween 38.5 and 40 degree Celsius, chills,sweats. headaches progressive weakness, dypsnoea and cough.Examination confirms high fever, pulse rate of 116 beats per minute, newly diagnosed pansystolic murmur. Fine crepitations were heard at the lung bases. The eyes had a lemon yellow tinge and there were macular rash in the palms. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? Sub acute bacterial endocarditis Viral hepatitis Acute bacterial endocarditis Acute rheumatic carditis. 25 / 80 These are chronic complications associated with sickle cell disease except priapism chronic lung disease leg ulcers congestive heart failure aseptic necrosis of the hip or shoulder 26 / 80 These are causes of acute stridor except diphtheria laryngomalacia acute epiglottitis croup bacterial tracheitis 27 / 80 Causes of macrocephaly include the following except hydrocephalus fetal alcohol syndrome mucopolysaccharidosis thalassaemia achondroplasia 28 / 80 The following statement are all TRUE about vomiting in pregnancy, EXCEPT: Is commonest in the third trimester Is associated with trophoblastic disease May be cured by admission to hospital Associated with multiple pregnancy Is associated with urinary tract infection 29 / 80 Squamous cell carcinoma of the anus: Bleeds but does not cause pain on defaecation Is the commonest malignant tumour of the anus Is treated by abdomino-perineal resection of the rectum and anus in all patients Usually presents as a localized ulcer with sloping edges 30 / 80 Features found in nephrotic syndrome include the following EXCEPT: Normal renal function Hypertriglyceridemia Oedema Hypoalbuminsemia 31 / 80 For a 75 year old man with a single rib fracture as the sole injury in a Road Traffic Accident the best treatment is: Strapping of the affected side of the chest External fixation Watchful administration of adequate doses of systemic analgesic agent Blockage of the appropriate intercostal nerve and active physiotherapy 32 / 80 The most effective surgical procedure in stress ulceration is: Polya partial gastrectomy Vogitomy and hemigastrectomy Vogotomy and pyloroplasty with suturing of bleeding points Total gastrectomy 33 / 80 A 27 year old man who is in good health has a persistently raised blood pressure of between 145/92 mmHg and 149/92 both at the poly clinic and in the home for 6 months. What will be the MOST appropriate management ? Start amlodipine therapy. Refer him to the specialist for investigations. to observe his blood pressure for a further 10 months before initiating treatment . Start him on nifedipine XL 30 mg once a day 34 / 80 All these conditions cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in newborns except biliary atresia breast milk jaundice sepsis torch infections galactosemia 35 / 80 Which of the following patients should you prescribe aspirin if there is no contraindication. Select the MOST appropriate All the answers below Any patient with hypertension and aged over 50 years Any patient with severe hypertension and 50 years and cardiovascular disease Anyone with hypertension, over 50 years and has cardiovascular risk of <20% over 20 years. 36 / 80 You are called to see a 67 year old man 30 hours after a major abdominal surgery with oligourea. Investigation shows blood urea 15 mold/l, creatinine 122mmol/l serum potassium 5.1 mold/ l and urinary sodium 10mmol/l (normal is 25 to 250 mom/l) What is the most likely diagnosis? Atonic bladder Injury to sacral nerve plexus Hypovolaemia Post renal uraemia 37 / 80 The commonest site for carcinoma of the tongue is the: Tip Posterior one-third Dorsum Lateral margin 38 / 80 The main tissues which provide support to the uterus include: Cardinal ligaments and the Uterosacral ligaments Broad ligaments and the Uterosacral ligaments Round ligament and the Broad ligaments Uterosacral ligaments and the Broad ligaments Perineal body and the Broad ligaments 39 / 80 Which of the underlisted factors has been shown by critical analysis to be the most important influence on the genesis of Surgical Site Infection (SSI) Glove puncture in the course of surgery Age of the patient Bacterial content of the wound at end of operation Preoperative showering for the patient 40 / 80 Cause of neonatal seizures include the following except pyridoxine deficiency hypermagnesaemia bilirubin encephalopathy hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy intracranial hemorrhage 41 / 80 Regarding Hyperemesis gravidarum, which one of the following items is TRUE? Worsen in missed abortion Not known to happen in molar pregnancy Is a complication of multiple pregnancy Urine for culture and sensitivity is not important Liver function test is not required 42 / 80 This is not true about autism there is severe language and speech developmental disorder commoner in males than in females with a male:female ratio of 3:1 it is pervasive developmental disorder it's characterised by restricted and repetitive behavior most cases have normal intelligence 43 / 80 Which of these pairs does not match with regards to neurocutaneous disorders. port wine stain and sturge weber syndrome café - au-lait spots and neurofibromatosis cortical tuber in neurofibromatosis adenoma sebaceum and tuberous sclerosis shagreen patch and tuberous sclerosis 44 / 80 In hypopituitarism all these hormones may be deficient except Cholecystokinin Adrenocorticotropic hormone Prolactin Follicle stimulating hormone Growth hormone 45 / 80 In an acute abdomen a history of frequent copious vomiting, the vomitus being clear initially, then bile-stained and finally brown in colour, is most suggestive of Gastro-enteritis Acute pancreatitis Acute gastritis Acute high intestinal obstruction 46 / 80 A child of four presents with shortness of breath on exertion, dyspnoea after meals and failure to thrive. On examination cyanosis is evident soon after exertion and the (L) side of the chest is tympanitic. Plain x-ray of the chest shows a cystic shadow in the left hemithorax. The most likely diagnosis is: Congenital postero-lateral diaphragmatic hernia (stabilized) Congital cyanotic heart disease Congenital cystic lung disease Emphysematous bullae 47 / 80 All these conditions cause hypokalemia in children except renal tubular acidosis type 1 gastroenteritis acute tubular necrosis pyloric stenosis frusemide 48 / 80 Concerning febrile seizures Main risk factor for recurrence is the temperature at time of seizure. They usually have a poor prognosis Complex features is not a risk factor for recurrence Overall, 30% develop epilepsy Overall risk for recurrence is 3-4% 49 / 80 In intestinal obstruction at the sigmoid colon due to stenosis, perforation is most likely to occur in the Transverse colon Terminal ileum Descending colon Caecum 50 / 80 An ectopic pregnancy: Usually presents with pain before bleeding Can only be treated surgically Pain always presents before the bleeding Gives an increased risk of Hyperemisis Gravidarium Occurs only in the fallopian tubes 51 / 80 The relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother is called: Attitude. Lie. Position. None of the above. Presentation. 52 / 80 Which of these discriptions adequately describe malena stools? Black stools Black tarry or sticky stools Loose very shining black stools Dark stools 53 / 80 Neonatal resuscitation chest compression is initiated when heart rate is below 100 bpm most effective action is ventilation of the baby's lungs atropine is administered when heart rate is below 100 bpm involves administration of iv aminophylline to preterms clearing airway preceeds keeping baby warm 54 / 80 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of normal labour: Progressive cervical dilation. Moderate bleeding. Moderate pain. Increasing intensity of contractions. Uterine relaxation between contractions. 55 / 80 The features listed below may be associated with migraine headache EXCEPT Photophobia. Nausea Pulsatile or throbbing headache Neck stiffness may be present 56 / 80 Stages of labour The cervix dilates at consistent rate of 3 cm per hour in the first stage The third stage end with the delivery of the placenta and membranes Syntometrine is a combination of oxytocin and Ergometrine which is used in the treatment of secondary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) Forceps or ventose may be useful in slow progress of the late 1st stage The first stage commences at the time of membrane rupture 57 / 80 A 25 year old man who falls on the outstretched right arm complains of pain around the elbow and it is found that the olecranon is unusually prominent. The line from the midial epicondyle through the tip of the olecranon to the latual epicandgle is angulated. The most likely clinical diagnosis is Supracondylar fracture Monteggia fracture dislocation Fracture of the olecranon process Dislocation of the elbow 58 / 80 In burns: There is initial vasodilatation followed by vasoconstriction in the burnt tissue. The increased capillary permeability is restricted to the burnt area. The maximum oedema fluid obtainable is about 10% of the body weight or 50% of total E.C.F. The rate of fluid exudation from the capillaries is highest in the first 4 hours and falls in 48 hours. 59 / 80 The source of progesterone that maintains the pregnancy during early 1st trimester is: Placenta. Corpus luteum. Endometrium. Corpus albicans. Adrenal glands. 60 / 80 The thyroid gland in thyrotoxicosis: If primary is uniformly enlarged and rather soft or firm In over 95 percent has a thrill and a bruit over it Is enlarged in all patients so affected If secondary is firm and multinodular in all patients 61 / 80 The following are causes of spastic paraparesis except; Potts disease Guillain Barre syndrome Disc prolapse Transverse myelitis 62 / 80 In normal pregnancy, the value of ß-hCG doubles every: 4 days. 2 days. 8 days. 14 days. 10 days. 63 / 80 The pelvis includes which of the following bones: Sacrum, Tibia, ilium and pubis. Trochanter, hip socket, ischium, sacrum and pubis. Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum and coccyx. Ilium, scapula, ischium and pubis. Trochanter, sacrum, coccyx, ilium and pubis 64 / 80 The following are contraindications for lumbar puncture except Acute spinal cord injury Cervical spondylosis Coagulopathy skin infection at or near the site of the lumbar puncture Raised intracranial pressure 65 / 80 On assessment of Semen Fluid Analysis: Teratozoospermia indicates abnormal motility Asthenozoospermia indicates abnormal forms Abstinence should be maintained for 3 days prior to production of the sample Abstinence should be maintained for 10 days prior to "production" of the sample Azoospermia indicates a sperm count more than 5 million/ml 66 / 80 Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT: Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis Patient may present with loss of the symptoms of pregnancy Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made Per vaginal bleeding may be one of the presenting symptom Disseminated intra-vascular coagulation may occur as a sequele of missed abortion 67 / 80 For adequate and stable haemostasis the following should obtain: Increased pressure within the injured vessel Retraction of the injured vessel A minimum platelet count of 90,000 per mm3 Endothelial cell secretion of factor VIII 68 / 80 A 55 year old man who has been working for many years blasting stones for building purposes presents with progressive dypsnoea on exertion, dry cough and progressive tiredness. On examination breath sounds were vesicular. There were medium crepitations on inspiration Percussion was resonant in all areas. Chest X ray showed diffuse milliary pattern in the upper lung fields. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? Tuberculosis Silicosis Carcinoma of the bronchus Left ventricular failure 69 / 80 Adverse effects of corticosteroids include all EXCEPT Cataract Euphoria Osteomalacia Avascular necrosis of the hip. 70 / 80 Twenty-four hours after partial gastrectomy, a 50 year old man has passed only 200mls of urine; catherization yield a further 100m of urine. Your provisional diagnosis is: Pre-renal renal failure Acute tubular necrosis Post-renal renal failure Acute renal failure 71 / 80 The management of retroexposed babies include lamivudine and zidovudine for 6 weeks for high risk babies zidovudine for six months cotrimoxazole at birth mixed feeding at 1 month PCR at 6 weeks of age 72 / 80 About severe acute malnutrition (SAM). Diagnostic features include mid upper arm circumference < 115mm ORS is the fluid of choice for correcting dehydration Hypoglycaemia is present when the blood glucose is <4mmol/l sensory stimulation is not helpful There is usually unilateral pitting pedal oedema 73 / 80 In a vertex presentation, the position is determined by the relationship of what fetal part to the Mother's pelvis: Sinciput. Acromian. Sacrum. Occiput. Mentum. 74 / 80 Molding of the fetal head: Does NOT have time to occur in breech delivery. Becomes progressively easier as gestational age increase. Does not happen when maternal pelvis is adequate. Usually cause brain damage. Increase the difficulty of delivery. 75 / 80 The second stage of labour involves: Effacement of the cervix. Expulsion of the fetus. Dilation of the cervix. Separation of the placenta. Expulsion of the placenta. 76 / 80 A71 year old man present with rapidly developing fever, cough productive of rust-clouded sputum which grew gram positive diplococci. His chest X-ray show lobar consolidation. He responds to treatment with amoxicillin . Which is the MOST likely organism for her infection? Staphylococcus aureus Klebsiella pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumonia 77 / 80 The following are associated with oral candidiasis except; Lymphoma Malignancy Retroviral infection Glucose 6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase 78 / 80 These are gross motor skills except stands alone steadiness of head when placed in supported position transfers object from hand to hand walks up stairs with help sits with support 79 / 80 A man of 40 complains of epigastric discomfort, progressive weight loss, anorexia malaise and intermittent pyrexia of 6 weeks duration. He looks ill, anaemic but not jaundiced and has a tender palpable liver; free fluid is detectable in the abdomen. The most likely clinical diagnosis is Primary liver cell carcinoma Carcinoma of the stomach Amoebic liver abscess Carcinoma of the body of the pancreas 80 / 80 The heart rate of a normal fetus at term is: 120-160 bpm. There is no baseline heart rate. 160-180 bpm. 100-120 bpm. 80-100 bpm. Your score is LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Send feedback