June Weekly Quiz 7 Quiz 1 / 100 Which lab result suggests synthetic liver failure? Elevated ALT Increased ALP Prolonged INR Positive ANA The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. 2 / 100 What is the treatment for symptomatic complete heart block? Digoxin Beta-blockers Atropine Permanent pacemaker Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. 3 / 100 Atypical pneumonia typically presents with: Dry cough and extrapulmonary symptoms Cyanosis and pleuritic chest pain Productive cough with purulent sputum Sudden high fever and lobar consolidation Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. 4 / 100 A patient with bradycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status needs immediate treatment. What is the first-line drug? Isoproterenol Epinephrine Dopamine Atropine Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. 5 / 100 Which stroke location leads to contralateral hemiparesis affecting the leg more than the arm? Anterior cerebral artery Vertebral artery Middle cerebral artery Posterior cerebral artery ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). 6 / 100 Which symptom suggests advanced liver failure? Palmar erythema Right upper quadrant pain Mild fatigue Confusion and disorientation Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. 7 / 100 Which of the following is not a cause of cirrhosis? Wilsonâs disease Primary biliary cholangitis Hemochromatosis Acute pancreatitis Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. 8 / 100 Which of the following conditions is not associated with increased TIA risk? Smoking Hyperlipidemia Hypothyroidism Diabetes mellitus Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. 9 / 100 Asterixis is a sign of: Hypoglycemia Hepatic encephalopathy Alcoholism Renal failure Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. 10 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A type of epilepsy Bleeding into the brain A reversible episode of neurological dysfunction Stroke that lasts more than 24 hours TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. 11 / 100 Spider angiomas are caused by: B12 deficiency Vitamin C deficiency Hyperestrogenemia Hypertension Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. 12 / 100 The most common cause of TIA is: Hemorrhage Epilepsy Infection Embolism from atherosclerotic plaque Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. 13 / 100 Which of the following is associated with micronodular cirrhosis? Viral hepatitis Alcoholic liver disease Hemochromatosis Autoimmune hepatitis Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. 14 / 100 The most likely pathogen in post-influenza pneumonia is: Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus aureus Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. 15 / 100 Which of the following is not a component of Virchows triad? Hypoxia Hypercoagulability Venous stasis Endothelial injury Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. 16 / 100 Which of the following is a typical pneumonia pathogen? Chlamydophila pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. 17 / 100 Visual field loss in the same side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia) is due to a lesion in: Optic nerve Optic chiasm Frontal lobe Occipital lobe Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. 18 / 100 By definition, how long do symptoms of a TIA typically last? 48â72 hours 1â2 days Indefinitely Less than 24 hours Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. 19 / 100 Calf tenderness in DVT is due to: Inflammatory response Joint effusion Muscle spasm Nerve compression Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. 20 / 100 Which of the following indicates past infection with HBV? HBsAg Anti-HBs alone HBeAg Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc IgG Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. 21 / 100 Hiatal hernia contributes to GERD by: Displacing LES above diaphragm Increasing gastric emptying Enhancing LES tone Reducing esophageal motility A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. 22 / 100 Which type of stroke commonly presents with vertigo, vomiting, and ataxia? Posterior circulation stroke Anterior cerebral artery infarct Middle cerebral artery infarct Lacunar infarct Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. 23 / 100 In DVT, leg swelling is usually: Bilateral Painless Localized to the knee Unilateral DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. 24 / 100 Which of these patients is most at risk of Pseudomonas pneumonia? Elderly nursing home resident with tracheostomy Pregnant woman in third trimester Healthy 30-year-old man Teenager with influenza Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. 25 / 100 Ascites in cirrhosis is primarily due to: Cardiac failure Dehydration Renal failure Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. 26 / 100 Which organism is associated with pneumonia in alcoholics? Legionella Klebsiella pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Mycoplasma pneumoniae Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. 27 / 100 Pneumonia occurring â¥48 hours after hospital admission is classified as: Ventilator-associated pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia Community-acquired pneumonia Hospital-acquired pneumonia HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. 28 / 100 Which of the following is least likely to cause a TIA? Cardioembolism Subdural hematoma Carotid artery stenosis Small vessel disease Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. 29 / 100 Immobilization contributes to PE by: Promoting venous stasis Increasing cardiac output Decreasing fibrin production Increasing oxygen saturation Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. 30 / 100 Which of the following is a protective factor against GERD? Delayed gastric emptying Normal esophageal peristalsis LES incompetence Smoking Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. 31 / 100 Which condition increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia? Diabetes mellitus GERD Asthma Stroke with dysphagia Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. 32 / 100 A key precipitating factor in GERD is: Obesity Decreased gastric acid production High-fiber diet Hypercalcemia Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. 33 / 100 Irregularly irregular rhythm with no visible P waves is classic for: Junctional rhythm Sinus arrhythmia Atrial fibrillation Atrial flutter AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. 34 / 100 The most likely cause of early satiety in cirrhosis is: Splenic infarct Esophageal varices Massive ascites Gastric ulcers Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. 35 / 100 A patient presents with sudden dyspnea after a long flight. The most likely diagnosis is: Pneumothorax Asthma Pulmonary embolism Heart failure Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. 36 / 100 Which finding suggests poor prognosis in cirrhosis? Spider nevi Splenomegaly Fatigue Hepatic encephalopathy Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. 37 / 100 What is the most common type of stroke? Ischemic stroke Subarachnoid hemorrhage Embolic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. 38 / 100 A 24-year-old college student has dry cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse infiltrates. Likely pathogen? Mycoplasma pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. 39 / 100 Classic symptoms of DVT include all except: Tenderness Unilateral leg swelling Warmth Bruising Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. 40 / 100 What is the most common source of pulmonary embolism? Right atrium Pulmonary artery Deep veins of the legs Arm veins Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). 41 / 100 First-line drug for AVNRT if vagal maneuvers fail: Digoxin Amiodarone Verapamil Adenosine Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. 42 / 100 Smoking contributes to GERD primarily by: Relaxing the LES Increasing mucus production Enhancing gastric acid secretion Narrowing the esophagus Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. 43 / 100 Pregnancy increases the risk of GERD due to: Progesterone-induced LES relaxation Increased esophageal motility Increased gastric acid Hypotension Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. 44 / 100 Which stroke type is associated with atrial fibrillation? Lacunar stroke Subdural hematoma Embolic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. 45 / 100 Gynecomastia in cirrhosis results from: Hormonal imbalance Elevated cortisol Alcohol use Poor hygiene Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. 46 / 100 A young patient with recurrent TIAs should be evaluated for: Patent foramen ovale (PFO) COPD Diabetes insipidus Hypothyroidism PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. 47 / 100 What is the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)? Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae Escherichia coli Influenza virus Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. 48 / 100 Skin changes in chronic DVT include: Alopecia Hyperpigmentation Petechiae Bullae Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. 49 / 100 Which marker appears first after HBV infection? HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBc IgM Anti-HBs HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. 50 / 100 In cirrhosis, fibrotic tissue replaces: Hepatocytes Kupffer cells Sinusoids Bile Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. 51 / 100 Homans sign in DVT is: Neither sensitive nor specific Always present Specific Diagnostic Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. 52 / 100 Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly seen in: COPD Hypertension Stroke Diabetes MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. 53 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for TIA? Family history Hypertension Male sex Age Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. 54 / 100 Which genetic disorder causes copper accumulation and cirrhosis? Gilbertâs syndrome Wilsonâs disease Hemochromatosis Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. 55 / 100 A cirrhotic patient presents with elevated ferritin. You suspect: Wilsonâs disease Hemochromatosis Acute hepatitis Primary biliary cholangitis Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. 56 / 100 The best indicator of HBV immunity is: Anti-HBc HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBs Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. 57 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke? Gender Age Family history Smoking Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. 58 / 100 Window period of HBV is detected by: Anti-HBs HBsAg Anti-HBc IgM HBeAg Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. 59 / 100 Caput medusae is: Petechiae on the chest Collateral veins on the abdomen Hyperpigmented skin Ascitic fluid accumulation Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. 60 / 100 Which of the following is not a common trigger of GERD? Caffeine Milk Citrus fruits Chocolate Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. 61 / 100 Which of the following medications can worsen GERD? Levothyroxine Furosemide Metoprolol NSAIDs NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. 62 / 100 Which statement about TIA is true? It is a warning sign of possible stroke It affects only motor function It causes permanent disability It always progresses to stroke TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. 63 / 100 Which lifestyle habit worsens GERD symptoms? Morning walks Frequent water drinking Fiber intake Alcohol intake Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. 64 / 100 The development of portal hypertension in cirrhosis is due to: Hepatic vein thrombosis Splenic infarction Fibrosis obstructing blood flow Increased bile secretion Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. 65 / 100 Which rhythm is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex? Mobitz type II Mobitz type I Sinus pause Complete heart block Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. 66 / 100 Chronic HBV infection is defined by HBsAg presence for: 1 month 6 months 12 months 3 months Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. 67 / 100 Presence of HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates: Vaccination Chronic hepatitis B Resolved infection Immunity Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. 68 / 100 Which of the following is the most common cause of sinus bradycardia? Hypothyroidism Increased vagal tone Myocardial infarction Hyperthyroidism Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. 69 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? Inverted P waves Short PR interval Regular QRS complexes Absent P waves for >2 seconds Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. 70 / 100 The cell type primarily involved in hepatic fibrosis is: Cholangiocytes Kupffer cells Hepatocytes Hepatic stellate cells (Ito cells) Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. 71 / 100 GERD is most commonly seen in which age group? Neonates Adults aged 30â60 Elderly only Children GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. 72 / 100 Delta waves on ECG suggest: Ventricular tachycardia Atrial fibrillation WPW syndrome AVNRT Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. 73 / 100 Atrial flutter usually has an atrial rate of: 100â150 bpm >400 bpm 250â350 bpm 60â100 bpm Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. 74 / 100 Which brain area, if affected, most commonly causes expressive aphasia? Basal ganglia Brocaâs area Wernickeâs area Occipital lobe Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. 75 / 100 HBV is most commonly transmitted in developing countries via: Organ transplant Blood transfusion Sexual contact Vertical transmission Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. 76 / 100 GERD results from dysfunction of which structure? Upper esophageal sphincter Duodenum Pyloric sphincter Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 77 / 100 A patient with atrial fibrillation is at risk of TIA due to: Bradycardia Increased blood viscosity Low BP Atrial thrombus formation Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. 78 / 100 Which surgery carries the highest PE risk? Hip replacement Appendectomy Cesarean section Cataract surgery Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. 79 / 100 Phlegmasia cerulea dolens is: Mild DVT Massive DVT with venous gangrene Hemorrhagic DVT Arterial embolism It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. 80 / 100 Which of the following is a hemorrhagic stroke? Middle cerebral artery infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage Lacunar infarct Pontine infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. 81 / 100 Which cancer is most associated with thrombosis and PE? Prostate Colon Pancreatic Lung Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. 82 / 100 What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)? Mycoplasma pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. 83 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in children? NAFLD Wilsonâs disease Biliary atresia Hepatitis C Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. 84 / 100 Smoking increases PE risk mainly by: Raising LDL Decreasing fibrinogen Increasing heart rate Enhancing platelet activation Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. 85 / 100 Which of the following symptoms would raise suspicion for DVT? General fatigue Swelling in one leg after a long flight Bilateral leg pain Cough with sputum Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. 86 / 100 What is the typical age range for TIA patients? <20 years >90 years 20â40 years 45â85 years TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. 87 / 100 A lacunar stroke most commonly involves which type of vessel? Jugular veins Large cerebral arteries Cerebellar arteries Small penetrating arteries Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. 88 / 100 In pregnancy, PE is most likely to occur in: Third trimester First trimester Postpartum period Second trimester The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. 89 / 100 Which marker indicates active viral replication in hepatitis B? Anti-HBc IgG Anti-HBs HBsAg HBeAg HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. 90 / 100 Anti-HBs positivity and anti-HBc negativity suggest: &. What is the treatment of choice for pregnant women with high HBV DNA? Tenofovir No treatment Lamivudine Interferon-alpha Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. 91 / 100 A DVT in the left leg is more common because: Left valves are incompetent Left iliac vein is compressed by right iliac artery Left leg is more used Right vein is narrower May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. 92 / 100 Which of the following is a classic sign of cirrhosis? Jaundice Cyanosis Diaphoresis Flushed skin Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. 93 / 100 Which inherited thrombophilia increases the risk of PE? Factor V Leiden mutation Hemophilia A Iron deficiency Hypokalemia Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. 94 / 100 Which of the following is a major risk factor for PE? Chronic bronchitis Hypothyroidism Asthma Oral contraceptive use Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. 95 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? &. Which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in WPW with atrial fibrillation? Procainamide Amiodarone Verapamil Flecainide Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. 96 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis worldwide? Hepatitis C Alcohol Viral hepatitis B Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. 97 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A type of hemorrhagic stroke Stroke due to trauma A stroke with permanent damage A brief, reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. 98 / 100 The most common symptom of GERD is: Hematemesis Dysphagia Heartburn Vomiting GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 99 / 100 Which is the most common presenting feature of DVT? Redness Swelling Fever Leg pain Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. 100 / 100 Which is not a complication of DVT? PE Chronic venous insufficiency Hemoptysis Post-thrombotic syndrome Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. Your score is Send feedback