June Weekly Quiz 7 Quiz 1 / 100 The development of portal hypertension in cirrhosis is due to: Splenic infarction Fibrosis obstructing blood flow Hepatic vein thrombosis Increased bile secretion Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. 2 / 100 A 24-year-old college student has dry cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse infiltrates. Likely pathogen? Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. 3 / 100 Which of the following is a typical pneumonia pathogen? Legionella pneumophila Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydophila pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. 4 / 100 In pregnancy, PE is most likely to occur in: First trimester Postpartum period Second trimester Third trimester The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. 5 / 100 A cirrhotic patient presents with elevated ferritin. You suspect: Wilsonâs disease Primary biliary cholangitis Acute hepatitis Hemochromatosis Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. 6 / 100 Gynecomastia in cirrhosis results from: Poor hygiene Hormonal imbalance Alcohol use Elevated cortisol Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. 7 / 100 By definition, how long do symptoms of a TIA typically last? 1â2 days Indefinitely Less than 24 hours 48â72 hours Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. 8 / 100 Which finding suggests poor prognosis in cirrhosis? Fatigue Spider nevi Hepatic encephalopathy Splenomegaly Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. 9 / 100 Immobilization contributes to PE by: Increasing oxygen saturation Decreasing fibrin production Promoting venous stasis Increasing cardiac output Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. 10 / 100 Delta waves on ECG suggest: Atrial fibrillation Ventricular tachycardia WPW syndrome AVNRT Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. 11 / 100 Which is not a complication of DVT? Post-thrombotic syndrome Chronic venous insufficiency PE Hemoptysis Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. 12 / 100 Caput medusae is: Ascitic fluid accumulation Petechiae on the chest Collateral veins on the abdomen Hyperpigmented skin Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. 13 / 100 Which of the following is a major risk factor for PE? Oral contraceptive use Hypothyroidism Chronic bronchitis Asthma Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. 14 / 100 First-line drug for AVNRT if vagal maneuvers fail: Adenosine Digoxin Verapamil Amiodarone Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. 15 / 100 Which statement about TIA is true? It affects only motor function It always progresses to stroke It causes permanent disability It is a warning sign of possible stroke TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. 16 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in children? Hepatitis C NAFLD Wilsonâs disease Biliary atresia Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. 17 / 100 Smoking increases PE risk mainly by: Raising LDL Decreasing fibrinogen Enhancing platelet activation Increasing heart rate Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. 18 / 100 Which stroke location leads to contralateral hemiparesis affecting the leg more than the arm? Vertebral artery Posterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery Anterior cerebral artery ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). 19 / 100 The most common symptom of GERD is: Vomiting Hematemesis Dysphagia Heartburn GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 20 / 100 Which genetic disorder causes copper accumulation and cirrhosis? Hemochromatosis Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Wilsonâs disease Gilbertâs syndrome Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. 21 / 100 Which of the following is least likely to cause a TIA? Carotid artery stenosis Small vessel disease Cardioembolism Subdural hematoma Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. 22 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for TIA? Family history Male sex Age Hypertension Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. 23 / 100 Window period of HBV is detected by: Anti-HBc IgM HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBs Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. 24 / 100 Phlegmasia cerulea dolens is: Hemorrhagic DVT Arterial embolism Mild DVT Massive DVT with venous gangrene It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. 25 / 100 A lacunar stroke most commonly involves which type of vessel? Large cerebral arteries Small penetrating arteries Jugular veins Cerebellar arteries Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. 26 / 100 Skin changes in chronic DVT include: Hyperpigmentation Bullae Petechiae Alopecia Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. 27 / 100 Which of the following is not a common trigger of GERD? Caffeine Chocolate Citrus fruits Milk Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. 28 / 100 The most common cause of TIA is: Epilepsy Hemorrhage Embolism from atherosclerotic plaque Infection Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. 29 / 100 A patient with bradycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status needs immediate treatment. What is the first-line drug? Isoproterenol Dopamine Atropine Epinephrine Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. 30 / 100 The cell type primarily involved in hepatic fibrosis is: Hepatocytes Cholangiocytes Hepatic stellate cells (Ito cells) Kupffer cells Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. 31 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? Inverted P waves Absent P waves for >2 seconds Regular QRS complexes Short PR interval Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. 32 / 100 Which condition increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia? Stroke with dysphagia Asthma GERD Diabetes mellitus Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. 33 / 100 Atypical pneumonia typically presents with: Productive cough with purulent sputum Sudden high fever and lobar consolidation Dry cough and extrapulmonary symptoms Cyanosis and pleuritic chest pain Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. 34 / 100 Which of the following medications can worsen GERD? Levothyroxine NSAIDs Metoprolol Furosemide NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. 35 / 100 What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)? Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. 36 / 100 Spider angiomas are caused by: Hypertension Vitamin C deficiency Hyperestrogenemia B12 deficiency Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. 37 / 100 Visual field loss in the same side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia) is due to a lesion in: Frontal lobe Optic chiasm Optic nerve Occipital lobe Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. 38 / 100 A patient presents with sudden dyspnea after a long flight. The most likely diagnosis is: Pneumothorax Pulmonary embolism Heart failure Asthma Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. 39 / 100 Which of the following is a classic sign of cirrhosis? Jaundice Flushed skin Diaphoresis Cyanosis Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. 40 / 100 Which of the following is not a cause of cirrhosis? Hemochromatosis Primary biliary cholangitis Wilsonâs disease Acute pancreatitis Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. 41 / 100 Which organism is associated with pneumonia in alcoholics? Mycoplasma pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Legionella Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. 42 / 100 Homans sign in DVT is: Neither sensitive nor specific Always present Diagnostic Specific Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. 43 / 100 Which surgery carries the highest PE risk? Appendectomy Hip replacement Cesarean section Cataract surgery Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. 44 / 100 What is the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)? Pseudomonas aeruginosa Escherichia coli Streptococcus pneumoniae Influenza virus Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. 45 / 100 Which of the following is associated with micronodular cirrhosis? Viral hepatitis Alcoholic liver disease Autoimmune hepatitis Hemochromatosis Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. 46 / 100 Atrial flutter usually has an atrial rate of: 250â350 bpm >400 bpm 100â150 bpm 60â100 bpm Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. 47 / 100 Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly seen in: COPD Hypertension Diabetes Stroke MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. 48 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke? Family history Age Smoking Gender Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. 49 / 100 Which of the following is a hemorrhagic stroke? Lacunar infarct Pontine infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage Middle cerebral artery infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. 50 / 100 Which rhythm is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex? Mobitz type II Mobitz type I Sinus pause Complete heart block Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. 51 / 100 Hiatal hernia contributes to GERD by: Enhancing LES tone Displacing LES above diaphragm Reducing esophageal motility Increasing gastric emptying A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. 52 / 100 Which marker appears first after HBV infection? HBeAg HBsAg Anti-HBs Anti-HBc IgM HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. 53 / 100 Chronic HBV infection is defined by HBsAg presence for: 6 months 12 months 1 month 3 months Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. 54 / 100 Which cancer is most associated with thrombosis and PE? Lung Pancreatic Prostate Colon Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. 55 / 100 Which brain area, if affected, most commonly causes expressive aphasia? Wernickeâs area Basal ganglia Occipital lobe Brocaâs area Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. 56 / 100 Which lifestyle habit worsens GERD symptoms? Fiber intake Morning walks Frequent water drinking Alcohol intake Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. 57 / 100 Which type of stroke commonly presents with vertigo, vomiting, and ataxia? Anterior cerebral artery infarct Middle cerebral artery infarct Posterior circulation stroke Lacunar infarct Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. 58 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? Bleeding into the brain Stroke that lasts more than 24 hours A reversible episode of neurological dysfunction A type of epilepsy TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. 59 / 100 Which of these patients is most at risk of Pseudomonas pneumonia? Teenager with influenza Pregnant woman in third trimester Healthy 30-year-old man Elderly nursing home resident with tracheostomy Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. 60 / 100 The most likely cause of early satiety in cirrhosis is: Gastric ulcers Esophageal varices Splenic infarct Massive ascites Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. 61 / 100 Which of the following symptoms would raise suspicion for DVT? Bilateral leg pain Cough with sputum General fatigue Swelling in one leg after a long flight Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. 62 / 100 Which inherited thrombophilia increases the risk of PE? Iron deficiency Hemophilia A Hypokalemia Factor V Leiden mutation Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. 63 / 100 What is the treatment for symptomatic complete heart block? Atropine Beta-blockers Permanent pacemaker Digoxin Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. 64 / 100 Calf tenderness in DVT is due to: Joint effusion Nerve compression Muscle spasm Inflammatory response Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. 65 / 100 Which of the following indicates past infection with HBV? HBeAg Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc IgG Anti-HBs alone HBsAg Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. 66 / 100 The best indicator of HBV immunity is: HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBc Anti-HBs Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. 67 / 100 Which of the following is not a component of Virchows triad? Venous stasis Endothelial injury Hypercoagulability Hypoxia Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. 68 / 100 GERD results from dysfunction of which structure? Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) Pyloric sphincter Duodenum Upper esophageal sphincter GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 69 / 100 Asterixis is a sign of: Hepatic encephalopathy Hypoglycemia Renal failure Alcoholism Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. 70 / 100 In DVT, leg swelling is usually: Painless Bilateral Localized to the knee Unilateral DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. 71 / 100 Anti-HBs positivity and anti-HBc negativity suggest: &. What is the treatment of choice for pregnant women with high HBV DNA? Lamivudine Tenofovir No treatment Interferon-alpha Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. 72 / 100 What is the typical age range for TIA patients? 45â85 years 20â40 years <20 years >90 years TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. 73 / 100 A patient with atrial fibrillation is at risk of TIA due to: Bradycardia Increased blood viscosity Low BP Atrial thrombus formation Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. 74 / 100 Pregnancy increases the risk of GERD due to: Hypotension Increased gastric acid Increased esophageal motility Progesterone-induced LES relaxation Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. 75 / 100 Smoking contributes to GERD primarily by: Increasing mucus production Enhancing gastric acid secretion Relaxing the LES Narrowing the esophagus Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. 76 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? Stroke due to trauma A stroke with permanent damage A brief, reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction A type of hemorrhagic stroke TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. 77 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? &. Which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in WPW with atrial fibrillation? Verapamil Procainamide Amiodarone Flecainide Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. 78 / 100 Which symptom suggests advanced liver failure? Right upper quadrant pain Confusion and disorientation Mild fatigue Palmar erythema Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. 79 / 100 A key precipitating factor in GERD is: Hypercalcemia Decreased gastric acid production High-fiber diet Obesity Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. 80 / 100 In cirrhosis, fibrotic tissue replaces: Sinusoids Kupffer cells Bile Hepatocytes Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. 81 / 100 Which of the following is the most common cause of sinus bradycardia? Increased vagal tone Hypothyroidism Myocardial infarction Hyperthyroidism Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. 82 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis worldwide? Viral hepatitis B Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) Alcohol Hepatitis C Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. 83 / 100 HBV is most commonly transmitted in developing countries via: Blood transfusion Sexual contact Vertical transmission Organ transplant Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. 84 / 100 Which marker indicates active viral replication in hepatitis B? HBeAg Anti-HBs HBsAg Anti-HBc IgG HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. 85 / 100 Which stroke type is associated with atrial fibrillation? Hemorrhagic stroke Subdural hematoma Embolic stroke Lacunar stroke Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. 86 / 100 Which is the most common presenting feature of DVT? Fever Leg pain Swelling Redness Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. 87 / 100 Ascites in cirrhosis is primarily due to: Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia Renal failure Cardiac failure Dehydration Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. 88 / 100 What is the most common source of pulmonary embolism? Arm veins Pulmonary artery Deep veins of the legs Right atrium Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). 89 / 100 Pneumonia occurring â¥48 hours after hospital admission is classified as: Hospital-acquired pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia Community-acquired pneumonia Ventilator-associated pneumonia HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. 90 / 100 A young patient with recurrent TIAs should be evaluated for: Hypothyroidism COPD Patent foramen ovale (PFO) Diabetes insipidus PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. 91 / 100 Which lab result suggests synthetic liver failure? Prolonged INR Elevated ALT Increased ALP Positive ANA The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. 92 / 100 Classic symptoms of DVT include all except: Tenderness Unilateral leg swelling Bruising Warmth Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. 93 / 100 The most likely pathogen in post-influenza pneumonia is: Staphylococcus aureus Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. 94 / 100 Presence of HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates: Immunity Chronic hepatitis B Resolved infection Vaccination Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. 95 / 100 GERD is most commonly seen in which age group? Neonates Elderly only Children Adults aged 30â60 GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. 96 / 100 What is the most common type of stroke? Ischemic stroke Embolic stroke Subarachnoid hemorrhage Hemorrhagic stroke About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. 97 / 100 Irregularly irregular rhythm with no visible P waves is classic for: Junctional rhythm Atrial fibrillation Atrial flutter Sinus arrhythmia AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. 98 / 100 Which of the following is a protective factor against GERD? Delayed gastric emptying Smoking Normal esophageal peristalsis LES incompetence Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. 99 / 100 Which of the following conditions is not associated with increased TIA risk? Hyperlipidemia Hypothyroidism Smoking Diabetes mellitus Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. 100 / 100 A DVT in the left leg is more common because: Left leg is more used Right vein is narrower Left valves are incompetent Left iliac vein is compressed by right iliac artery May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. Your score is Send feedback