June Weekly Quiz 7 Quiz 1 / 100 Which cancer is most associated with thrombosis and PE? Lung Pancreatic Prostate Colon Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. 2 / 100 Pneumonia occurring â¥48 hours after hospital admission is classified as: Community-acquired pneumonia Hospital-acquired pneumonia Ventilator-associated pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. 3 / 100 Homans sign in DVT is: Neither sensitive nor specific Specific Always present Diagnostic Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. 4 / 100 Classic symptoms of DVT include all except: Warmth Unilateral leg swelling Tenderness Bruising Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. 5 / 100 In cirrhosis, fibrotic tissue replaces: Bile Kupffer cells Hepatocytes Sinusoids Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. 6 / 100 Delta waves on ECG suggest: AVNRT Atrial fibrillation Ventricular tachycardia WPW syndrome Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. 7 / 100 What is the typical age range for TIA patients? 45â85 years 20â40 years <20 years >90 years TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. 8 / 100 Irregularly irregular rhythm with no visible P waves is classic for: Sinus arrhythmia Junctional rhythm Atrial flutter Atrial fibrillation AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. 9 / 100 What is the most common source of pulmonary embolism? Deep veins of the legs Pulmonary artery Arm veins Right atrium Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). 10 / 100 Anti-HBs positivity and anti-HBc negativity suggest: &. What is the treatment of choice for pregnant women with high HBV DNA? Lamivudine Interferon-alpha Tenofovir No treatment Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. 11 / 100 Phlegmasia cerulea dolens is: Arterial embolism Massive DVT with venous gangrene Hemorrhagic DVT Mild DVT It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. 12 / 100 Which condition increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia? Diabetes mellitus Stroke with dysphagia Asthma GERD Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. 13 / 100 First-line drug for AVNRT if vagal maneuvers fail: Verapamil Amiodarone Adenosine Digoxin Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. 14 / 100 Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly seen in: COPD Stroke Hypertension Diabetes MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. 15 / 100 Which inherited thrombophilia increases the risk of PE? Factor V Leiden mutation Iron deficiency Hypokalemia Hemophilia A Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. 16 / 100 A key precipitating factor in GERD is: Hypercalcemia High-fiber diet Decreased gastric acid production Obesity Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. 17 / 100 Atrial flutter usually has an atrial rate of: 100â150 bpm 250â350 bpm >400 bpm 60â100 bpm Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. 18 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis worldwide? Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) Hepatitis C Alcohol Viral hepatitis B Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. 19 / 100 Which of the following is a classic sign of cirrhosis? Diaphoresis Cyanosis Jaundice Flushed skin Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. 20 / 100 A lacunar stroke most commonly involves which type of vessel? Jugular veins Large cerebral arteries Small penetrating arteries Cerebellar arteries Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. 21 / 100 What is the most common type of stroke? Subarachnoid hemorrhage Hemorrhagic stroke Embolic stroke Ischemic stroke About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. 22 / 100 Which of the following is a typical pneumonia pathogen? Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydophila pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. 23 / 100 Pregnancy increases the risk of GERD due to: Increased esophageal motility Progesterone-induced LES relaxation Increased gastric acid Hypotension Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. 24 / 100 Which lifestyle habit worsens GERD symptoms? Alcohol intake Frequent water drinking Fiber intake Morning walks Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. 25 / 100 Which of the following is a major risk factor for PE? Asthma Hypothyroidism Chronic bronchitis Oral contraceptive use Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. 26 / 100 Which lab result suggests synthetic liver failure? Increased ALP Prolonged INR Positive ANA Elevated ALT The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. 27 / 100 A patient with bradycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status needs immediate treatment. What is the first-line drug? Atropine Dopamine Epinephrine Isoproterenol Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. 28 / 100 A patient presents with sudden dyspnea after a long flight. The most likely diagnosis is: Pulmonary embolism Asthma Pneumothorax Heart failure Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. 29 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? Short PR interval Inverted P waves Regular QRS complexes Absent P waves for >2 seconds Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. 30 / 100 Hiatal hernia contributes to GERD by: Enhancing LES tone Increasing gastric emptying Displacing LES above diaphragm Reducing esophageal motility A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. 31 / 100 Which of these patients is most at risk of Pseudomonas pneumonia? Pregnant woman in third trimester Teenager with influenza Healthy 30-year-old man Elderly nursing home resident with tracheostomy Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. 32 / 100 Caput medusae is: Collateral veins on the abdomen Ascitic fluid accumulation Petechiae on the chest Hyperpigmented skin Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. 33 / 100 Spider angiomas are caused by: B12 deficiency Vitamin C deficiency Hyperestrogenemia Hypertension Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. 34 / 100 The most common cause of TIA is: Infection Hemorrhage Epilepsy Embolism from atherosclerotic plaque Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. 35 / 100 Which of the following medications can worsen GERD? Furosemide Metoprolol Levothyroxine NSAIDs NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. 36 / 100 Which of the following indicates past infection with HBV? Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc IgG HBeAg Anti-HBs alone HBsAg Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. 37 / 100 Which of the following is a hemorrhagic stroke? Middle cerebral artery infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage Pontine infarct Lacunar infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. 38 / 100 Which genetic disorder causes copper accumulation and cirrhosis? Hemochromatosis Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Gilbertâs syndrome Wilsonâs disease Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. 39 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A stroke with permanent damage Stroke due to trauma A type of hemorrhagic stroke A brief, reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. 40 / 100 A patient with atrial fibrillation is at risk of TIA due to: Low BP Bradycardia Increased blood viscosity Atrial thrombus formation Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. 41 / 100 The best indicator of HBV immunity is: HBeAg Anti-HBs Anti-HBc HBsAg Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. 42 / 100 Which of the following is associated with micronodular cirrhosis? Autoimmune hepatitis Viral hepatitis Hemochromatosis Alcoholic liver disease Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. 43 / 100 Which of the following is least likely to cause a TIA? Cardioembolism Subdural hematoma Carotid artery stenosis Small vessel disease Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. 44 / 100 What is the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)? Influenza virus Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae Escherichia coli Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. 45 / 100 Which is not a complication of DVT? PE Chronic venous insufficiency Hemoptysis Post-thrombotic syndrome Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. 46 / 100 What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)? Klebsiella pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. 47 / 100 GERD results from dysfunction of which structure? Pyloric sphincter Upper esophageal sphincter Duodenum Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 48 / 100 Window period of HBV is detected by: HBeAg HBsAg Anti-HBc IgM Anti-HBs Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. 49 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for TIA? Male sex Family history Hypertension Age Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. 50 / 100 By definition, how long do symptoms of a TIA typically last? 48â72 hours Less than 24 hours 1â2 days Indefinitely Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. 51 / 100 Presence of HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates: Vaccination Resolved infection Immunity Chronic hepatitis B Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. 52 / 100 The development of portal hypertension in cirrhosis is due to: Increased bile secretion Hepatic vein thrombosis Fibrosis obstructing blood flow Splenic infarction Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. 53 / 100 Which marker indicates active viral replication in hepatitis B? HBeAg Anti-HBs HBsAg Anti-HBc IgG HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. 54 / 100 Which of the following is not a common trigger of GERD? Chocolate Caffeine Citrus fruits Milk Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. 55 / 100 The most likely cause of early satiety in cirrhosis is: Esophageal varices Splenic infarct Massive ascites Gastric ulcers Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. 56 / 100 Which of the following is a protective factor against GERD? Normal esophageal peristalsis Delayed gastric emptying LES incompetence Smoking Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. 57 / 100 Chronic HBV infection is defined by HBsAg presence for: 3 months 12 months 6 months 1 month Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. 58 / 100 Which of the following is the most common cause of sinus bradycardia? Increased vagal tone Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism Myocardial infarction Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. 59 / 100 A cirrhotic patient presents with elevated ferritin. You suspect: Wilsonâs disease Primary biliary cholangitis Hemochromatosis Acute hepatitis Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. 60 / 100 Calf tenderness in DVT is due to: Muscle spasm Inflammatory response Nerve compression Joint effusion Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. 61 / 100 Which rhythm is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex? Mobitz type II Complete heart block Mobitz type I Sinus pause Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. 62 / 100 A DVT in the left leg is more common because: Right vein is narrower Left iliac vein is compressed by right iliac artery Left leg is more used Left valves are incompetent May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. 63 / 100 Which of the following conditions is not associated with increased TIA risk? Hyperlipidemia Hypothyroidism Diabetes mellitus Smoking Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. 64 / 100 A 24-year-old college student has dry cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse infiltrates. Likely pathogen? Mycoplasma pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. 65 / 100 Smoking contributes to GERD primarily by: Increasing mucus production Narrowing the esophagus Enhancing gastric acid secretion Relaxing the LES Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. 66 / 100 The cell type primarily involved in hepatic fibrosis is: Hepatic stellate cells (Ito cells) Cholangiocytes Hepatocytes Kupffer cells Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. 67 / 100 Skin changes in chronic DVT include: Petechiae Hyperpigmentation Bullae Alopecia Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. 68 / 100 Which symptom suggests advanced liver failure? Confusion and disorientation Right upper quadrant pain Mild fatigue Palmar erythema Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. 69 / 100 Which marker appears first after HBV infection? HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBs Anti-HBc IgM HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. 70 / 100 Which of the following is not a component of Virchows triad? Endothelial injury Hypoxia Venous stasis Hypercoagulability Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. 71 / 100 Which brain area, if affected, most commonly causes expressive aphasia? Wernickeâs area Basal ganglia Occipital lobe Brocaâs area Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. 72 / 100 Which stroke type is associated with atrial fibrillation? Subdural hematoma Lacunar stroke Hemorrhagic stroke Embolic stroke Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. 73 / 100 Ascites in cirrhosis is primarily due to: Dehydration Renal failure Cardiac failure Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. 74 / 100 The most common symptom of GERD is: Vomiting Hematemesis Dysphagia Heartburn GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 75 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in children? Hepatitis C Biliary atresia Wilsonâs disease NAFLD Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. 76 / 100 HBV is most commonly transmitted in developing countries via: Sexual contact Blood transfusion Organ transplant Vertical transmission Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. 77 / 100 Smoking increases PE risk mainly by: Raising LDL Increasing heart rate Enhancing platelet activation Decreasing fibrinogen Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. 78 / 100 Which organism is associated with pneumonia in alcoholics? Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Legionella Pseudomonas aeruginosa Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. 79 / 100 Which finding suggests poor prognosis in cirrhosis? Fatigue Spider nevi Splenomegaly Hepatic encephalopathy Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. 80 / 100 Which stroke location leads to contralateral hemiparesis affecting the leg more than the arm? Vertebral artery Anterior cerebral artery Posterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). 81 / 100 Asterixis is a sign of: Hepatic encephalopathy Hypoglycemia Alcoholism Renal failure Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. 82 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A type of epilepsy Bleeding into the brain Stroke that lasts more than 24 hours A reversible episode of neurological dysfunction TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. 83 / 100 Which surgery carries the highest PE risk? Cataract surgery Cesarean section Hip replacement Appendectomy Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. 84 / 100 Which of the following symptoms would raise suspicion for DVT? Cough with sputum Bilateral leg pain General fatigue Swelling in one leg after a long flight Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. 85 / 100 Which statement about TIA is true? It always progresses to stroke It is a warning sign of possible stroke It causes permanent disability It affects only motor function TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. 86 / 100 Immobilization contributes to PE by: Increasing oxygen saturation Decreasing fibrin production Increasing cardiac output Promoting venous stasis Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. 87 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? &. Which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in WPW with atrial fibrillation? Procainamide Amiodarone Flecainide Verapamil Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. 88 / 100 Which is the most common presenting feature of DVT? Fever Redness Swelling Leg pain Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. 89 / 100 Which of the following is not a cause of cirrhosis? Wilsonâs disease Hemochromatosis Acute pancreatitis Primary biliary cholangitis Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. 90 / 100 What is the treatment for symptomatic complete heart block? Digoxin Beta-blockers Atropine Permanent pacemaker Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. 91 / 100 A young patient with recurrent TIAs should be evaluated for: Diabetes insipidus COPD Patent foramen ovale (PFO) Hypothyroidism PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. 92 / 100 The most likely pathogen in post-influenza pneumonia is: Haemophilus influenzae Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. 93 / 100 GERD is most commonly seen in which age group? Neonates Elderly only Children Adults aged 30â60 GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. 94 / 100 Gynecomastia in cirrhosis results from: Elevated cortisol Poor hygiene Hormonal imbalance Alcohol use Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. 95 / 100 Which type of stroke commonly presents with vertigo, vomiting, and ataxia? Anterior cerebral artery infarct Posterior circulation stroke Middle cerebral artery infarct Lacunar infarct Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. 96 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke? Age Gender Family history Smoking Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. 97 / 100 In pregnancy, PE is most likely to occur in: Third trimester Postpartum period Second trimester First trimester The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. 98 / 100 Visual field loss in the same side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia) is due to a lesion in: Frontal lobe Optic chiasm Optic nerve Occipital lobe Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. 99 / 100 In DVT, leg swelling is usually: Localized to the knee Painless Unilateral Bilateral DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. 100 / 100 Atypical pneumonia typically presents with: Productive cough with purulent sputum Sudden high fever and lobar consolidation Cyanosis and pleuritic chest pain Dry cough and extrapulmonary symptoms Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. Your score is Send feedback