June Weekly Quiz 7 Quiz 1 / 100 A young patient with recurrent TIAs should be evaluated for: Hypothyroidism COPD Diabetes insipidus Patent foramen ovale (PFO) PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. PFO allows paradoxical emboli to bypass the lungs and reach the brain. 2 / 100 Which is not a complication of DVT? Post-thrombotic syndrome PE Hemoptysis Chronic venous insufficiency Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. Hemoptysis is a symptom of PE, not DVT directly. 3 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? Absent P waves for >2 seconds Inverted P waves Short PR interval Regular QRS complexes Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. Sinus arrest is a prolonged pause with no P waves or associated QRS. 4 / 100 Pregnancy increases the risk of GERD due to: Increased esophageal motility Progesterone-induced LES relaxation Increased gastric acid Hypotension Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. Elevated progesterone during pregnancy relaxes the LES and delays gastric emptying. 5 / 100 GERD is most commonly seen in which age group? Children Elderly only Neonates Adults aged 30â60 GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. GERD is common in middle-aged adults due to lifestyle and anatomical changes. 6 / 100 Calf tenderness in DVT is due to: Muscle spasm Inflammatory response Joint effusion Nerve compression Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. Thrombus triggers local inflammation causing pain and tenderness. 7 / 100 Which of the following medications can worsen GERD? Furosemide NSAIDs Metoprolol Levothyroxine NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. NSAIDs can irritate the esophageal lining and contribute to reflux symptoms. 8 / 100 The most likely cause of early satiety in cirrhosis is: Gastric ulcers Esophageal varices Splenic infarct Massive ascites Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. Ascitic fluid compresses the stomach, limiting meal size. 9 / 100 HBV is most commonly transmitted in developing countries via: Organ transplant Sexual contact Blood transfusion Vertical transmission Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. Perinatal transmission is common in high-prevalence areas. 10 / 100 Asterixis is a sign of: Hepatic encephalopathy Alcoholism Renal failure Hypoglycemia Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. Asterixis is a flapping tremor indicating metabolic encephalopathy. 11 / 100 Chronic HBV infection is defined by HBsAg presence for: 6 months 1 month 12 months 3 months Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. Chronicity is confirmed if HBsAg persists for more than 6 months. 12 / 100 What is the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)? Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Escherichia coli Influenza virus Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. Pseudomonas and other gram-negative organisms are common in HAP. 13 / 100 The cell type primarily involved in hepatic fibrosis is: Kupffer cells Hepatocytes Hepatic stellate cells (Ito cells) Cholangiocytes Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. Stellate cells produce collagen when activated in chronic liver injury. 14 / 100 Which of the following is a classic sign of cirrhosis? Jaundice Diaphoresis Cyanosis Flushed skin Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. Jaundice reflects impaired bilirubin metabolism in liver failure. 15 / 100 A patient with atrial fibrillation is at risk of TIA due to: Increased blood viscosity Atrial thrombus formation Bradycardia Low BP Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. Atrial fibrillation can cause thrombi in the atria, which may embolize to the brain. 16 / 100 Which marker appears first after HBV infection? HBeAg Anti-HBc IgM HBsAg Anti-HBs HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. HBsAg is the earliest marker of acute infection. 17 / 100 Which lifestyle habit worsens GERD symptoms? Fiber intake Frequent water drinking Morning walks Alcohol intake Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. Alcohol decreases LES pressure and promotes acid reflux. 18 / 100 A cirrhotic patient presents with elevated ferritin. You suspect: Wilsonâs disease Hemochromatosis Primary biliary cholangitis Acute hepatitis Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. Iron overload from hemochromatosis causes liver damage and high ferritin levels. 19 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A type of hemorrhagic stroke A stroke with permanent damage Stroke due to trauma A brief, reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. TIA resolves without infarction, typically within minutes to hours. 20 / 100 Which of these patients is most at risk of Pseudomonas pneumonia? Elderly nursing home resident with tracheostomy Healthy 30-year-old man Pregnant woman in third trimester Teenager with influenza Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. Tracheostomy and prolonged hospital stay predispose to Pseudomonas. 21 / 100 What is the treatment for symptomatic complete heart block? Permanent pacemaker Beta-blockers Digoxin Atropine Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. Complete heart block requires pacing due to risk of sudden cardiac death. 22 / 100 Hiatal hernia contributes to GERD by: Reducing esophageal motility Increasing gastric emptying Displacing LES above diaphragm Enhancing LES tone A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. A hiatal hernia compromises the LESs function, allowing acid to reflux into the esophagus. 23 / 100 Which organism is associated with pneumonia in alcoholics? Legionella Klebsiella pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Mycoplasma pneumoniae Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. Klebsiella is associated with aspiration and produces âcurrant jellyâ sputum. 24 / 100 Anti-HBs positivity and anti-HBc negativity suggest: &. What is the treatment of choice for pregnant women with high HBV DNA? Tenofovir Interferon-alpha Lamivudine No treatment Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. Tenofovir is safe in pregnancy and reduces vertical transmission. 25 / 100 The most likely pathogen in post-influenza pneumonia is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus aureus Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. Secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza is often due to S. aureus. 26 / 100 Skin changes in chronic DVT include: Bullae Alopecia Hyperpigmentation Petechiae Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. Chronic venous stasis may cause darkening due to hemosiderin deposition. 27 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis worldwide? Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) Alcohol Viral hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. Hepatitis C is the most common cause globally, though alcohol and NAFLD are leading in many regions. 28 / 100 A lacunar stroke most commonly involves which type of vessel? Small penetrating arteries Large cerebral arteries Cerebellar arteries Jugular veins Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. Lacunar strokes affect small, deep penetrating vessels and often occur in the basal ganglia, pons, or internal capsule. 29 / 100 First-line drug for AVNRT if vagal maneuvers fail: Digoxin Amiodarone Verapamil Adenosine Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. Adenosine transiently blocks AV node and terminates AVNRT. 30 / 100 Smoking increases PE risk mainly by: Increasing heart rate Enhancing platelet activation Decreasing fibrinogen Raising LDL Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. Smoking contributes to hypercoagulability and endothelial dysfunction. 31 / 100 What is the most common type of stroke? Hemorrhagic stroke Embolic stroke Subarachnoid hemorrhage Ischemic stroke About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from obstruction of blood flow. 32 / 100 Which surgery carries the highest PE risk? Hip replacement Appendectomy Cesarean section Cataract surgery Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. Major orthopedic surgeries like hip and knee replacement are high risk for DVT/PE. 33 / 100 Which of the following is a hemorrhagic stroke? Pontine infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage Lacunar infarct Middle cerebral artery infarct Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. Subarachnoid hemorrhage results from bleeding into the subarachnoid space. 34 / 100 Presence of HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates: Resolved infection Immunity Chronic hepatitis B Vaccination Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. Persistence of HBsAg beyond 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B. 35 / 100 Which type of stroke commonly presents with vertigo, vomiting, and ataxia? Posterior circulation stroke Middle cerebral artery infarct Lacunar infarct Anterior cerebral artery infarct Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. Strokes in the vertebrobasilar system affect the brainstem and cerebellum. 36 / 100 In DVT, leg swelling is usually: Painless Localized to the knee Bilateral Unilateral DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. DVT classically presents with unilateral leg swelling. 37 / 100 Smoking contributes to GERD primarily by: Narrowing the esophagus Relaxing the LES Increasing mucus production Enhancing gastric acid secretion Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. Smoking reduces LES tone and saliva production, increasing acid exposure. 38 / 100 GERD results from dysfunction of which structure? Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) Upper esophageal sphincter Pyloric sphincter Duodenum GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 39 / 100 Pneumonia occurring â¥48 hours after hospital admission is classified as: Community-acquired pneumonia Hospital-acquired pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia Ventilator-associated pneumonia HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. HAP develops â¥48 hours after admission, unrelated to initial infection. 40 / 100 Sinus arrest is best diagnosed by which ECG feature? &. Which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in WPW with atrial fibrillation? Verapamil Amiodarone Flecainide Procainamide Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. Verapamil slows AV conduction, worsening pre-excited AF and risking VF. 41 / 100 Which of the following is a typical pneumonia pathogen? Streptococcus pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydophila pneumoniae Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. Typical pathogens include S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis. 42 / 100 Which of the following is not a common trigger of GERD? Citrus fruits Chocolate Milk Caffeine Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. Milk may initially soothe symptoms, though fat content in some milk products can still worsen reflux. 43 / 100 Which cancer is most associated with thrombosis and PE? Lung Pancreatic Colon Prostate Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. Pancreatic and gastric cancers are highly thrombogenic. 44 / 100 Delta waves on ECG suggest: Ventricular tachycardia Atrial fibrillation WPW syndrome AVNRT Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. Delta waves signify pre-excitation through an accessory pathway. 45 / 100 Which of the following is a major risk factor for PE? Oral contraceptive use Hypothyroidism Chronic bronchitis Asthma Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. Estrogen-containing medications increase coagulability, predisposing to PE. 46 / 100 The most common symptom of GERD is: Dysphagia Hematemesis Vomiting Heartburn GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. GERD occurs due to decreased tone or inappropriate relaxation of the LES. 47 / 100 Which brain area, if affected, most commonly causes expressive aphasia? Basal ganglia Brocaâs area Occipital lobe Wernickeâs area Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. Brocaâs area (left inferior frontal gyrus) controls speech production. 48 / 100 Which stroke type is associated with atrial fibrillation? Subdural hematoma Hemorrhagic stroke Embolic stroke Lacunar stroke Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. Atrial fibrillation increases risk of thromboembolism to the brain. 49 / 100 Atypical pneumonia typically presents with: Cyanosis and pleuritic chest pain Productive cough with purulent sputum Sudden high fever and lobar consolidation Dry cough and extrapulmonary symptoms Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. Atypical pneumonia presents with a dry cough, headache, and myalgia. 50 / 100 Which of the following conditions is not associated with increased TIA risk? Hyperlipidemia Hypothyroidism Smoking Diabetes mellitus Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. Hypothyroidism is not a significant stroke or TIA risk factor. 51 / 100 Gynecomastia in cirrhosis results from: Hormonal imbalance Elevated cortisol Alcohol use Poor hygiene Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. Liver failure reduces estrogen breakdown, causing feminization. 52 / 100 Which of the following indicates past infection with HBV? HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBs alone Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc IgG Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. Both anti-HBc and anti-HBs show natural immunity after resolved infection. 53 / 100 What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)? Haemophilus influenzae Klebsiella pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP globally. 54 / 100 Which of the following is the most common cause of sinus bradycardia? Hypothyroidism Myocardial infarction Increased vagal tone Hyperthyroidism Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. Increased vagal tone is the most common benign cause of sinus bradycardia, especially in athletes. 55 / 100 Which symptom suggests advanced liver failure? Palmar erythema Confusion and disorientation Mild fatigue Right upper quadrant pain Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. Altered mental status reflects hepatic encephalopathy. 56 / 100 The development of portal hypertension in cirrhosis is due to: Fibrosis obstructing blood flow Increased bile secretion Splenic infarction Hepatic vein thrombosis Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. Fibrosis increases resistance to portal blood flow, leading to portal hypertension. 57 / 100 Which genetic disorder causes copper accumulation and cirrhosis? Hemochromatosis Gilbertâs syndrome Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Wilsonâs disease Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. Wilsonâs disease is an autosomal recessive condition causing copper buildup. 58 / 100 Which lab result suggests synthetic liver failure? Positive ANA Prolonged INR Elevated ALT Increased ALP The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. The liver produces clotting factors; a prolonged INR reflects reduced synthesis. 59 / 100 Which is the most common presenting feature of DVT? Leg pain Fever Redness Swelling Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. Swelling is the most consistent symptom in DVT. 60 / 100 A DVT in the left leg is more common because: Left iliac vein is compressed by right iliac artery Right vein is narrower Left leg is more used Left valves are incompetent May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. May-Thurner syndrome causes left iliac vein compression, increasing DVT risk. 61 / 100 Spider angiomas are caused by: Hyperestrogenemia Vitamin C deficiency B12 deficiency Hypertension Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. Estrogen buildup due to liver dysfunction causes vascular changes. 62 / 100 In cirrhosis, fibrotic tissue replaces: Sinusoids Hepatocytes Bile Kupffer cells Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. Cirrhosis involves irreversible replacement of hepatocytes with fibrous tissue. 63 / 100 A 24-year-old college student has dry cough, low-grade fever, and diffuse infiltrates. Likely pathogen? Streptococcus pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. Mycoplasma causes âwalking pneumoniaâ in young adults. 64 / 100 Which of the following is least likely to cause a TIA? Cardioembolism Subdural hematoma Carotid artery stenosis Small vessel disease Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. Subdural hematoma is not an ischemic process and doesnât cause TIA. 65 / 100 Immobilization contributes to PE by: Decreasing fibrin production Increasing cardiac output Increasing oxygen saturation Promoting venous stasis Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. Venous stasis is a major factor in Virchowâs triad for thrombosis. 66 / 100 Multifocal atrial tachycardia is commonly seen in: COPD Diabetes Hypertension Stroke MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. MAT is a chaotic atrial rhythm commonly triggered by hypoxia in COPD. 67 / 100 A patient presents with sudden dyspnea after a long flight. The most likely diagnosis is: Heart failure Pneumothorax Pulmonary embolism Asthma Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. Long flights can lead to stasis and DVT, increasing PE risk. 68 / 100 Caput medusae is: Ascitic fluid accumulation Petechiae on the chest Hyperpigmented skin Collateral veins on the abdomen Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. Due to portal hypertension, abdominal wall veins become engorged. 69 / 100 What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A reversible episode of neurological dysfunction A type of epilepsy Bleeding into the brain Stroke that lasts more than 24 hours TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by ischemia, without infarction. 70 / 100 A key precipitating factor in GERD is: High-fiber diet Decreased gastric acid production Hypercalcemia Obesity Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, promoting reflux. 71 / 100 Irregularly irregular rhythm with no visible P waves is classic for: Atrial fibrillation Junctional rhythm Atrial flutter Sinus arrhythmia AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. AF shows chaotic atrial activity and variable ventricular response. 72 / 100 Phlegmasia cerulea dolens is: Massive DVT with venous gangrene Arterial embolism Hemorrhagic DVT Mild DVT It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. It is a severe, limb-threatening form of DVT with cyanosis and ischemia. 73 / 100 Which rhythm is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex? Complete heart block Mobitz type II Sinus pause Mobitz type I Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows grouped beating with progressively longer PR intervals. 74 / 100 Which of the following is not a component of Virchows triad? Hypoxia Endothelial injury Hypercoagulability Venous stasis Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. Virchowâs triad includes stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability. 75 / 100 Which inherited thrombophilia increases the risk of PE? Hypokalemia Factor V Leiden mutation Hemophilia A Iron deficiency Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. Factor V Leiden is a common genetic cause of hypercoagulability. 76 / 100 Window period of HBV is detected by: Anti-HBc IgM HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBs Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. Anti-HBc IgM is the only marker during the window phase. 77 / 100 What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in children? Wilsonâs disease NAFLD Hepatitis C Biliary atresia Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. Biliary atresia is the leading cause of pediatric liver transplantation. 78 / 100 By definition, how long do symptoms of a TIA typically last? Less than 24 hours Indefinitely 48â72 hours 1â2 days Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. Symptoms resolve within 24 hours, usually within minutes to hours. 79 / 100 A patient with bradycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status needs immediate treatment. What is the first-line drug? Epinephrine Dopamine Isoproterenol Atropine Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. Atropine is the first-line drug in symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate. 80 / 100 In pregnancy, PE is most likely to occur in: Postpartum period Third trimester Second trimester First trimester The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. The risk of PE is highest immediately postpartum due to hormonal and hemodynamic changes. 81 / 100 Which of the following is not a cause of cirrhosis? Wilsonâs disease Acute pancreatitis Primary biliary cholangitis Hemochromatosis Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. Acute pancreatitis affects the pancreas, not the liver. 82 / 100 The most common cause of TIA is: Infection Hemorrhage Epilepsy Embolism from atherosclerotic plaque Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. Most TIAs are caused by emboli from atherosclerotic plaques in large arteries. 83 / 100 Which statement about TIA is true? It is a warning sign of possible stroke It always progresses to stroke It causes permanent disability It affects only motor function TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. TIA increases risk of future stroke, especially within 48 hours. 84 / 100 Which of the following is a protective factor against GERD? LES incompetence Normal esophageal peristalsis Delayed gastric emptying Smoking Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. Effective esophageal clearance reduces acid exposure time. 85 / 100 The best indicator of HBV immunity is: HBeAg HBsAg Anti-HBc Anti-HBs Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. Anti-HBs presence indicates immunity due to past infection or vaccination. 86 / 100 Which of the following symptoms would raise suspicion for DVT? General fatigue Swelling in one leg after a long flight Bilateral leg pain Cough with sputum Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. Unilateral swelling after immobilization is suspicious for DVT. 87 / 100 Classic symptoms of DVT include all except: Unilateral leg swelling Bruising Tenderness Warmth Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. Bruising is not a typical DVT sign; it suggests bleeding. 88 / 100 Which condition increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia? Asthma GERD Stroke with dysphagia Diabetes mellitus Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. Neurological deficits impair swallowing, leading to aspiration. 89 / 100 Which finding suggests poor prognosis in cirrhosis? Fatigue Spider nevi Hepatic encephalopathy Splenomegaly Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. Encephalopathy reflects advanced liver dysfunction. 90 / 100 Atrial flutter usually has an atrial rate of: 250â350 bpm 60â100 bpm 100â150 bpm >400 bpm Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. Classic atrial flutter has a sawtooth pattern with ~300 bpm atrial rate. 91 / 100 Ascites in cirrhosis is primarily due to: Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia Renal failure Dehydration Cardiac failure Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. Increased hydrostatic pressure and low oncotic pressure promote fluid accumulation. 92 / 100 Which of the following is associated with micronodular cirrhosis? Autoimmune hepatitis Viral hepatitis Alcoholic liver disease Hemochromatosis Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. Alcoholic liver disease typically shows small uniform nodules. 93 / 100 What is the typical age range for TIA patients? 20â40 years >90 years 45â85 years <20 years TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. TIAs are more common in middle-aged and elderly adults. 94 / 100 Which stroke location leads to contralateral hemiparesis affecting the leg more than the arm? Anterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery Posterior cerebral artery Vertebral artery ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). ACA supplies the medial portion of the frontal lobe (leg area of motor cortex). 95 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for TIA? Family history Age Male sex Hypertension Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor. 96 / 100 What is the most common source of pulmonary embolism? Deep veins of the legs Right atrium Arm veins Pulmonary artery Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). Most emboli originate from deep veins in the lower limbs (DVT). 97 / 100 Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke? Age Smoking Family history Gender Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for stroke. 98 / 100 Visual field loss in the same side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia) is due to a lesion in: Optic nerve Optic chiasm Frontal lobe Occipital lobe Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. Damage to the occipital cortex or optic tract causes homonymous hemianopia. 99 / 100 Homans sign in DVT is: Neither sensitive nor specific Diagnostic Always present Specific Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. Homanâs sign (pain on dorsiflexion) is unreliable for diagnosis. 100 / 100 Which marker indicates active viral replication in hepatitis B? Anti-HBc IgG HBeAg HBsAg Anti-HBs HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. HBeAg is associated with high infectivity and active replication. Your score is Send feedback