Paediatric Quiz 1 2 All the best thank you. Quiz 1 / 100 Which of the following is a sign of neonatal septic shock? Hypotension and prolonged capillary refill Jaundice without lethargy Hypertension and strong pulses Bradycardia with stable BP Shock presents with signs of poor circulation like prolonged CRT and low BP. Shock presents with signs of poor circulation like prolonged CRT and low BP. 2 / 100 Which of the following signs is most concerning during early newborn feeding? Poor suck reflex Frequent burping Milk dribbling Hiccups A poor suck reflex may indicate neurologic or muscular dysfunction and requires immediate evaluation. A poor suck reflex may indicate neurologic or muscular dysfunction and requires immediate evaluation. 3 / 100 Which diagnostic tool is used to screen for IVH in preterm infants? MRI Cranial ultrasound X-ray Fundoscopy Cranial ultrasound is the preferred non-invasive tool to detect intraventricular hemorrhage in preterm neonates. Cranial ultrasound is the preferred non-invasive tool to detect intraventricular hemorrhage in preterm neonates. 4 / 100 What is the recommended action if a newborn fails the initial hearing screen? Start speech therapy Ignore and reassess in school Refer for repeat screening and audiology Wait until 6 months A failed newborn hearing screen should be followed up with repeat testing and referral to audiology to ensure early intervention for hearing loss. A failed newborn hearing screen should be followed up with repeat testing and referral to audiology to ensure early intervention for hearing loss. 5 / 100 What is the maximum number of people required to resuscitate a neonate effectively? 6 people minimum 3-4 trained personnel Only the pediatrician One experienced midwife Resuscitation is ideally done by a team of at least 3â4 trained members. Resuscitation is ideally done by a team of at least 3â4 trained members. 6 / 100 A newborn presents with lethargy, poor feeding, and hypothermia. What is the next best step? Wait for culture results Initiate sepsis workup and start empiric antibiotics Observe for 24 hours Administer paracetamol Prompt antibiotic therapy is life-saving in suspected sepsis; donât wait for labs. Prompt antibiotic therapy is life-saving in suspected sepsis; donât wait for labs. 7 / 100 What is the correct response if a newborn has a persistent heart murmur and poor feeding? Encourage breastfeeding Wait and reassess at 6 weeks Refer for echocardiography Start antibiotics A murmur associated with clinical signs like poor feeding warrants urgent evaluation with echocardiography to rule out congenital heart disease. A murmur associated with clinical signs like poor feeding warrants urgent evaluation with echocardiography to rule out congenital heart disease. 8 / 100 Which of the following tests confirms the diagnosis of neonatal sepsis? Chest X-ray Low hemoglobin Positive blood culture Elevated CRP Blood culture is the gold standard for confirming bloodstream infection. Blood culture is the gold standard for confirming bloodstream infection. 9 / 100 Which Apgar score indicates moderate birth asphyxia? 0-3 4-6 8-10 >10 An Apgar score of 4â6 at 1 and 5 minutes suggests moderate asphyxia. An Apgar score of 4â6 at 1 and 5 minutes suggests moderate asphyxia. 10 / 100 What is a major risk of delayed intervention in birth asphyxia? Anemia Growth retardation Permanent neurologic damage Neonatal jaundice Delay in management may lead to irreversible brain injury such as cerebral palsy or cognitive delay. Delay in management may lead to irreversible brain injury such as cerebral palsy or cognitive delay. 11 / 100 What laboratory finding is most suggestive of neonatal sepsis? Normal white cell count Low hematocrit Elevated C-reactive protein High platelet count CRP is a sensitive inflammatory marker used to support the diagnosis. CRP is a sensitive inflammatory marker used to support the diagnosis. 12 / 100 Which intervention can prevent early-onset GBS sepsis? Intrapartum antibiotics for GBS+ mothers Neonatal vitamin K Routine blood cultures Breastfeeding Intrapartum prophylaxis dramatically reduces neonatal GBS infections. Intrapartum prophylaxis dramatically reduces neonatal GBS infections. 13 / 100 Why is Listeria monocytogenes significant in neonatal sepsis? It causes thrombocytosis Itâs resistant to ampicillin It causes late-onset GBS It can cross the placenta Listeria can cause in utero infection via hematogenous spread across placenta. Listeria can cause in utero infection via hematogenous spread across placenta. 14 / 100 What clinical feature is most suggestive of bilirubin encephalopathy? Pink skin tone Soft cry Hypoglycemia Arching of back (opisthotonos) Opisthotonos is a classic sign of kernicterus in neonates. Opisthotonos is a classic sign of kernicterus in neonates. 15 / 100 What is the target oxygen saturation range for a stable preterm infant in NICU? 100% 70-80% 80-85% 90-95% Oxygen saturation is carefully titrated to avoid both hypoxia and hyperoxia; 90â95% is ideal in most stable preterms. Oxygen saturation is carefully titrated to avoid both hypoxia and hyperoxia; 90â95% is ideal in most stable preterms. 16 / 100 Why are preterm infants at greater risk of hypothermia? They produce more sweat They have a large surface area and thin skin They cry less They have high body fat Preterm babies lose heat easily due to their large surface area, limited fat stores, and immature skin. Preterm babies lose heat easily due to their large surface area, limited fat stores, and immature skin. 17 / 100 What is the purpose of therapeutic hypothermia in birth asphyxia? Prevent sepsis Reduce brain metabolism and injury Increase oxygen delivery Treat seizures Therapeutic hypothermia (33â34°C) slows brain metabolism, reducing damage from hypoxic-ischemic events. Therapeutic hypothermia (33â34°C) slows brain metabolism, reducing damage from hypoxic-ischemic events. 18 / 100 Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (HIE) is associated with which complication? Hypoglycemia Hyperbilirubinemia Congenital heart disease Cerebral palsy HIE can cause long-term neurological damage including cerebral palsy. HIE can cause long-term neurological damage including cerebral palsy. 19 / 100 A firm, non-tender swelling over the parietal bone that does not cross suture lines is likely: Subgaleal hemorrhage Cephalohematoma Caput succedaneum Meningocele A cephalohematoma is a subperiosteal bleed that does not cross suture lines and may take weeks to resolve. A cephalohematoma is a subperiosteal bleed that does not cross suture lines and may take weeks to resolve. 20 / 100 Which of the following is most effective in preventing RDS in infants born <34 weeks? Delayed cord clamping Early formula feeds Maternal oxygen Antenatal corticosteroids Corticosteroids accelerate surfactant production in fetal lungs and reduce incidence of RDS. Corticosteroids accelerate surfactant production in fetal lungs and reduce incidence of RDS. 21 / 100 A newborn is gasping and has a heart rate of 110 bpm. What is the appropriate management? Intubate and give surfactant Start chest compressions Start positive pressure ventilation Give oxygen via nasal cannula Gasping is ineffective breathing and warrants PPV, regardless of heart rate. Gasping is ineffective breathing and warrants PPV, regardless of heart rate. 22 / 100 What type of jaundice is associated with Gilbert syndrome? Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia Direct hyperbilirubinemia only Mixed jaundice Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia Gilbert syndrome results from mildly reduced bilirubin conjugation activity. Gilbert syndrome results from mildly reduced bilirubin conjugation activity. 23 / 100 What is the typical pattern of jaundice progression in the body? Cephalocaudal (head to toe) Caudocephalic Right to left Left to right Jaundice progresses from the face downward as bilirubin levels rise. Jaundice progresses from the face downward as bilirubin levels rise. 24 / 100 Late-onset sepsis typically occurs after how many hours of life? 72 hours 12 hours 24 hours 48 hours Sepsis occurring after 72 hours is categorized as late-onset. Sepsis occurring after 72 hours is categorized as late-onset. 25 / 100 What is the preferred position for examining hip stability in a newborn? Prone with hips extended Sitting upright Supine with hips and knees flexed Supine with legs straight Hip assessments (Barlow/Ortolani maneuvers) are done with the baby supine, hips and knees flexed to evaluate for instability. Hip assessments (Barlow/Ortolani maneuvers) are done with the baby supine, hips and knees flexed to evaluate for instability. 26 / 100 What finding on CBC may indicate neonatal sepsis? Low white blood cell count Normal platelet count High hematocrit High hemoglobin Leukopenia may reflect bone marrow suppression or overwhelming infection. Leukopenia may reflect bone marrow suppression or overwhelming infection. 27 / 100 What is the most appropriate response to a persistent umbilical stump beyond 3 weeks of age? Assess for immune deficiency Leave it alone Use topical antibiotics Apply alcohol Delayed umbilical stump separation beyond 3 weeks may suggest leukocyte adhesion defect or other immunodeficiencies. Delayed umbilical stump separation beyond 3 weeks may suggest leukocyte adhesion defect or other immunodeficiencies. 28 / 100 Which of the following is most helpful in reducing the incidence of early-onset sepsis in preterm labor? Antenatal magnesium Intrapartum antibiotics Antipyretics Antiviral agents Intrapartum antibiotics reduce group B streptococcus and other bacterial transmission during delivery. Intrapartum antibiotics reduce group B streptococcus and other bacterial transmission during delivery. 29 / 100 A severely asphyxiated newborn requires resuscitation. What FiOâ should be used initially? 40% 80% 21% (room air) 100% Initial resuscitation begins with room air (21% Oâ); supplemental oxygen is added only if necessary. Initial resuscitation begins with room air (21% Oâ); supplemental oxygen is added only if necessary. 30 / 100 Which imaging modality helps assess hypoxic brain injury in neonates? Abdominal ultrasound Cranial ultrasound or MRI Chest X-ray CT of lungs Cranial ultrasound or MRI can detect brain injury due to hypoxia, such as periventricular leukomalacia. Cranial ultrasound or MRI can detect brain injury due to hypoxia, such as periventricular leukomalacia. 31 / 100 Which of the following is an abnormal finding in a newbornâs chest exam? Clear lung fields Persistent grunting Periodic breathing Soft breast tissue Grunting is a sign of respiratory distress and should prompt evaluation for pulmonary or cardiac pathology. Grunting is a sign of respiratory distress and should prompt evaluation for pulmonary or cardiac pathology. 32 / 100 What is a benefit of using fiberoptic (biliblanket) phototherapy? Allows parent-infant bonding during treatment Works faster than conventional phototherapy Replaces exchange transfusion Causes more dehydration Biliblankets enable continued contact and breastfeeding during therapy. Biliblankets enable continued contact and breastfeeding during therapy. 33 / 100 Which of the following is NOT a sign of severe birth asphyxia? Hypotonia Absent reflexes Seizures Bradycardia >120 bpm Bradycardia >120 bpm is not a clinical concern; severe asphyxia causes heart rates below 100 or 60 bpm. Bradycardia >120 bpm is not a clinical concern; severe asphyxia causes heart rates below 100 or 60 bpm. 34 / 100 Which maternal condition increases the risk for early-onset neonatal sepsis? Low BMI Oligohydramnios Hyperemesis gravidarum Maternal fever during labor Fever often signals infection like chorioamnionitis, a major risk factor. Fever often signals infection like chorioamnionitis, a major risk factor. 35 / 100 Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia in neonates? Flexed posture Cyanosis Jitteriness Sneezing Jitteriness is a common and early sign of hypoglycemia in neonates, especially in infants of diabetic mothers or those small for gestational age. Jitteriness is a common and early sign of hypoglycemia in neonates, especially in infants of diabetic mothers or those small for gestational age. 36 / 100 Which of the following Apgar components reflects heart rate? Appearance Activity Pulse Grimace The âPulseâ component of the Apgar score measures heart rate. The âPulseâ component of the Apgar score measures heart rate. 37 / 100 Which clinical sign is an early indicator of hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy? Bradycardia Persistent crying Poor feeding and lethargy Jitteriness Lethargy and poor feeding are early neurological signs of HIE due to brain hypoxia. Lethargy and poor feeding are early neurological signs of HIE due to brain hypoxia. 38 / 100 In neonatal sepsis, thrombocytopenia is best explained by: Viral exanthem Consumptive coagulopathy Iron deficiency Hemoglobinopathy Sepsis can trigger DIC, leading to low platelet counts. Sepsis can trigger DIC, leading to low platelet counts. 39 / 100 What defines birth asphyxia? Meconium in amniotic fluid Fever and sepsis Lack of crying after birth Impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxia and hypercapnia Birth asphyxia results from failure of gas exchange causing low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Birth asphyxia results from failure of gas exchange causing low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. 40 / 100 What feature best distinguishes transient tachypnea from RDS in a preterm infant? TTN usually resolves within 48â72 hours RDS has a slower onset TTN shows ground-glass appearance on x-ray RDS has hyperinflated lungs TTN typically improves quickly without need for surfactant; RDS is more severe and persistent. TTN typically improves quickly without need for surfactant; RDS is more severe and persistent. 41 / 100 What is the most common cardiac murmur heard in preterm infants with PDA? Diastolic rumble Systolic click Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur Continuous "machinery" murmur Patent ductus arteriosus causes a continuous murmur due to flow from aorta to pulmonary artery. Patent ductus arteriosus causes a continuous murmur due to flow from aorta to pulmonary artery. 42 / 100 What is a reliable sign of feeding intolerance in a preterm baby? Increasing gastric residuals and abdominal distension Frequent hiccups Passing meconium Rapid eye movements Large gastric residuals and bloating are warning signs for NEC or poor tolerance to enteral feeds. Large gastric residuals and bloating are warning signs for NEC or poor tolerance to enteral feeds. 43 / 100 What gestational condition increases the risk of birth asphyxia? Maternal obesity Iron deficiency anemia Twin pregnancy Prolonged labor Prolonged or obstructed labor can compromise fetal oxygenation and lead to birth asphyxia. Prolonged or obstructed labor can compromise fetal oxygenation and lead to birth asphyxia. 44 / 100 What is the most common neurologic sequela of severe birth asphyxia? Epilepsy Cerebral palsy Autism Hydrocephalus Cerebral palsy is the most frequent long-term complication from hypoxic brain injury. Cerebral palsy is the most frequent long-term complication from hypoxic brain injury. 45 / 100 What is the target oxygen saturation at 10 minutes of life? 100% 60-70% 85-95% 50-60% At 10 minutes, target preductal SpOâ is 85-95%. At 10 minutes, target preductal SpOâ is 85â95%. 46 / 100 What is the primary source of early-onset neonatal sepsis? Breast milk Nosocomial infection Maternal genital tract Umbilical stump Vertical transmission during delivery is the main route. Vertical transmission during delivery is the main route. 47 / 100 Which of the following is associated with better long-term outcomes in preterm infants? Low protein formula Early routine antibiotics Early elective delivery Human milk feeding Human milk reduces NEC, improves immunity, and supports neurodevelopment. Human milk reduces NEC, improves immunity, and supports neurodevelopment. 48 / 100 What is the hallmark acid-base abnormality in severe birth asphyxia? Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Metabolic alkalosis Due to anaerobic metabolism, lactic acid accumulates, resulting in metabolic acidosis. Due to anaerobic metabolism, lactic acid accumulates, resulting in metabolic acidosis. 49 / 100 What developmental milestone is typically corrected for in premature infants? Sleeping patterns Cry volume Gross motor development Reflex irritability Developmental milestones (especially motor and cognitive) are interpreted using corrected age until about 2 years. Developmental milestones (especially motor and cognitive) are interpreted using corrected age until about 2 years. 50 / 100 Which of the following is a risk factor for early-onset neonatal sepsis? Full-term gestation Prolonged rupture of membranes Elective cesarean section Exclusive breastfeeding PROM (>18 hours) allows ascending bacteria from the genital tract to infect the neonate. PROM (>18 hours) allows ascending bacteria from the genital tract to infect the neonate. 51 / 100 What is the best site for phototherapy lights to be positioned relative to the baby? To the side of the incubator On the infantâs back Directly overhead and close (as per manufacturerâs recommendation) Underneath the cot Direct overhead positioning ensures effective skin exposure. Direct overhead positioning ensures effective skin exposure. 52 / 100 Which of the following is a cause of secondary apnea in a newborn? Good tone and color Prolonged hypoxia Vaginal delivery Early cord clamping Secondary apnea occurs after prolonged hypoxia and requires PPV. Secondary apnea occurs after prolonged hypoxia and requires PPV. 53 / 100 What is the first-line antibiotic combination for suspected early-onset sepsis? Ampicillin and gentamicin Ceftriaxone and vancomycin Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid Meropenem and linezolid This combo provides broad coverage including GBS and gram-negative organisms. This combo provides broad coverage including GBS and gram-negative organisms. 54 / 100 What is the gold standard for measuring serum bilirubin levels? Visual skin assessment Capillary refill time Transcutaneous bilirubin estimation Laboratory total serum bilirubin test Serum bilirubin measured in the lab is the most accurate method. Serum bilirubin measured in the lab is the most accurate method. 55 / 100 What laboratory finding is commonly seen in asphyxiated neonates? Respiratory alkalosis Hypokalemia Metabolic acidosis Hypernatremia Due to anaerobic metabolism, metabolic acidosis is common in asphyxiated neonates. Due to anaerobic metabolism, metabolic acidosis is common in asphyxiated neonates. 56 / 100 Which neonatal population is at highest risk for sepsis? Infants with ABO incompatibility only Preterm and low birth weight infants Large for gestational age Term infants born by CS Immature immunity makes preterm and LBW babies especially vulnerable. Immature immunity makes preterm and LBW babies especially vulnerable. 57 / 100 Which method is appropriate to evaluate the severity of jaundice in a 2-day-old infant? Visual inspection alone Weight-based bilirubin chart Nomogram adjusted for age in hours Umbilical artery blood gas Bilirubin nomograms guide treatment thresholds by age in hours. Bilirubin nomograms guide treatment thresholds by age in hours. 58 / 100 Which condition presents with a webbed neck and widely spaced nipples in female newborns? Down syndrome Klinefelter syndrome Marfan syndrome Turner syndrome Turner syndrome (45,XO) presents with features like webbed neck, lymphedema, and widely spaced nipples. Turner syndrome (45,XO) presents with features like webbed neck, lymphedema, and widely spaced nipples. 59 / 100 Which parameter is most reliable in monitoring asphyxiated neonates during therapeutic hypothermia? Electroencephalogram (EEG) Respiratory rate Blood pressure Oxygen saturation EEG helps monitor seizure activity and brain function in neonates undergoing therapeutic hypothermia. EEG helps monitor seizure activity and brain function in neonates undergoing therapeutic hypothermia. 60 / 100 A red, swollen scrotum with tenderness in a neonate suggests: Epididymitis Inguinal hernia Physiological hydrocele Testicular torsion Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency characterized by acute swelling, redness, and pain in the scrotum. Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency characterized by acute swelling, redness, and pain in the scrotum. 61 / 100 At what time should therapeutic hypothermia ideally be initiated for maximum neuroprotection? Between 12â18 hours Immediately after resuscitation Within 6 hours of birth After 24 hours Therapeutic hypothermia is most effective when started within the first 6 hours of life. Therapeutic hypothermia is most effective when started within the first 6 hours of life. 62 / 100 Which of the following is least likely to cause neonatal jaundice? Patent ductus arteriosus G6PD deficiency Sepsis Rh incompatibility PDA is a cardiac condition and does not directly affect bilirubin metabolism. PDA is a cardiac condition and does not directly affect bilirubin metabolism. 63 / 100 What is the appropriate management for a term infant with bilirubin slightly below phototherapy threshold? Start exchange transfusion Discontinue breastfeeding Monitor and encourage feeding Administer IV antibiotics Observation and good feeding are adequate when bilirubin is below treatment level. Observation and good feeding are adequate when bilirubin is below treatment level. 64 / 100 Which organism is more commonly associated with late-onset sepsis? Group B Streptococcus Coagulase-negative staphylococci Treponema pallidum Listeria monocytogenes CONS is a major pathogen in hospitalized and preterm infants. CONS is a major pathogen in hospitalized and preterm infants. 65 / 100 What is the role of lumbar puncture in neonatal sepsis evaluation? Assess electrolytes Measure bilirubin Diagnose pneumonia Rule out meningitis LP helps identify CNS infection, especially if neurological signs are present. LP helps identify CNS infection, especially if neurological signs are present. 66 / 100 When using a bag-mask device, how long should each breath last? 3 seconds 1 second 0.5 seconds 2 seconds Each breath should be delivered over about 1 second. Each breath should be delivered over about 1 second. 67 / 100 How long should you provide chest compressions before reassessing heart rate? 15 seconds 30 seconds 90 seconds 60 seconds Chest compressions are given for 60 seconds before reassessment. Chest compressions are given for 60 seconds before reassessment. 68 / 100 Which newborns should be placed under a radiant warmer immediately? Babies delivered by C-section Only vigorous babies All newborns at risk for resuscitation Only babies <1.5 kg Warmth is part of the initial steps for all at-risk infants. Warmth is part of the initial steps for all at-risk infants. 69 / 100 Which of the following findings is most typical of a baby born at 28 weeks gestation? Developed ear cartilage Absent breast buds and thin skin Descended testes Full sole creases A 28-week preterm infant typically has thin skin, absent breast tissue, and minimal cartilage in the ears. A 28-week preterm infant typically has thin skin, absent breast tissue, and minimal cartilage in the ears. 70 / 100 Which of the following is true regarding the immune system of preterm infants? Their immunity is superior to term infants Their B-cell count is higher They have reduced maternal IgG transfer They are resistant to infection Most maternal IgG is transferred in the third trimester, which preterm babies miss â making them more vulnerable to infections. Most maternal IgG is transferred in the third trimester, which preterm babies miss â making them more vulnerable to infections. 71 / 100 What is the initial management step in a newborn with birth asphyxia? Start IV fluids Give glucose Ensure airway and provide ventilation Administer antibiotics The priority is to open the airway and provide effective ventilation, especially if the baby is apneic or bradycardic. The priority is to open the airway and provide effective ventilation, especially if the baby is apneic or bradycardic. 72 / 100 Which feature is typical of a term newbornâs skin? Smooth and pink with some lanugo Thin and transparent Extensive vernix caseosa Peeling and dry with visible vessels Term infants typically have smooth, pink skin, possibly with traces of lanugo, and minimal vernix. Term infants typically have smooth, pink skin, possibly with traces of lanugo, and minimal vernix. 73 / 100 Which of the following measures helps prevent hemolytic jaundice due to Rh incompatibility? Neonatal exchange transfusion at birth Delayed cord clamping Anti-D immunoglobulin to Rh-negative mothers Routine antibiotics Anti-D prevents maternal sensitization against Rh-positive fetal cells. Anti-D prevents maternal sensitization against Rh-positive fetal cells. 74 / 100 Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor in birth asphyxia? Birth weight >2.5 kg Need for resuscitation beyond 10 minutes Apgar score of 6 at 1 minute Quick response to resuscitation Prolonged resuscitation beyond 10 minutes is associated with poor neurological outcomes. Prolonged resuscitation beyond 10 minutes is associated with poor neurological outcomes. 75 / 100 What is the preferred size of endotracheal tube for a term newborn? 2.0 mm 4.5 mm 2.5 mm 3.5 mm internal diameter 3.5 mm ETT is standard for term infants. 3.5 mm ETT is standard for term infants. 76 / 100 Which neonates are at greatest risk for Rh isoimmunization-related jaundice? Rh-negative babies of Rh-positive mothers First-born infants ABO compatible babies Rh-positive infants of Rh-negative mothers Rh incompatibility arises when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. Rh incompatibility arises when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. 77 / 100 What is the primary route of bilirubin excretion in neonates? Sweat Exhalation Stool via bile Urine Conjugated bilirubin is eliminated mainly in stool through bile. Conjugated bilirubin is eliminated mainly in stool through bile. 78 / 100 Which component of breast milk may contribute to prolonged jaundice? Lactoferrin Beta-glucuronidase IgA Casein Beta-glucuronidase increases bilirubin reabsorption from intestines. Beta-glucuronidase increases bilirubin reabsorption from intestines. 79 / 100 What factor lowers the risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia? Early and frequent breastfeeding East Asian ethnicity G6PD deficiency Prematurity Feeding improves stool passage and bilirubin clearance. Feeding improves stool passage and bilirubin clearance. 80 / 100 What is the expected weight gain for a stable preterm infant per day? 15-20 grams per kg 5-10 grams 50-80 grams 100-150 grams Healthy weight gain in preterms is approximately 15â20 g/kg/day to mimic intrauterine growth rates. Healthy weight gain in preterms is approximately 15â20 g/kg/day to mimic intrauterine growth rates. 81 / 100 What is the most important supportive measure in neonatal sepsis? IV fluids and temperature control Oxygen only Iron supplementation Phototherapy Managing fluid status and thermoregulation are essential. Managing fluid status and thermoregulation are essential. 82 / 100 Which of the following best describes post-conceptional age in a preterm infant? Time since birth Time since due date Gestational age at birth plus chronological age Age since fertilization Post-conceptional (or corrected) age is calculated by adding the age at birth to the number of weeks since birth â used to assess developmental milestones in preterms. Post-conceptional (or corrected) age is calculated by adding the age at birth to the number of weeks since birth â used to assess developmental milestones in preterms. 83 / 100 Which of these medications may displace bilirubin from albumin and increase kernicterus risk? Paracetamol Sulfonamides Iron supplements Vitamin D Sulfonamides displace bilirubin from albumin, increasing free bilirubin levels. Sulfonamides displace bilirubin from albumin, increasing free bilirubin levels. 84 / 100 Which of the following is most likely to result in ineffective ventilation? Poor mask seal Proper positioning Use of radiant warmer High oxygen concentration A poor seal prevents air entry into lungs. A poor seal prevents air entry into lungs. 85 / 100 Which of the following reduces mortality in extremely low birth weight infants when given early? Surfactant replacement therapy Vitamin K Parenteral iron Ibuprofen Early surfactant therapy reduces RDS severity and improves survival in extremely preterm infants. Early surfactant therapy reduces RDS severity and improves survival in extremely preterm infants. 86 / 100 What is the most common causative organism in early-onset neonatal sepsis? Group B Streptococcus Listeria monocytogenes Escherichia coli Klebsiella pneumoniae Group B Streptococcus is the most common cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis, acquired during delivery. Group B Streptococcus is the most common cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis, acquired during delivery. 87 / 100 Which sign should prompt urgent referral in a jaundiced neonate? Poor feeding and lethargy Weight gain Soft fontanelle Periodic breathing Neurologic symptoms in jaundiced infants suggest acute bilirubin toxicity. Neurologic symptoms in jaundiced infants suggest acute bilirubin toxicity. 88 / 100 What is the most common cause of birth asphyxia? Meconium aspiration Maternal infection Umbilical cord prolapse Placental insufficiency Placental insufficiency leads to chronic fetal hypoxia, making it a leading cause of birth asphyxia. Acute events like cord prolapse are less common. Placental insufficiency leads to chronic fetal hypoxia, making it a leading cause of birth asphyxia. Acute events like cord prolapse are less common. 89 / 100 What is the normal glucose level in a healthy term newborn after 24 hours of birth? >100 mg/dL >45 mg/dL <20 mg/dL <30 mg/dL A blood glucose level of more than 45 mg/dL after 24 hours of life is considered normal for a term neonate. A blood glucose level of more than 45 mg/dL after 24 hours of life is considered normal for a term neonate. 90 / 100 A bulging fontanelle in a quiet newborn may indicate: Increased intracranial pressure Normal crying Dehydration Fontanelle infection A bulging anterior fontanelle when the baby is calm is concerning for increased intracranial pressure, such as from hydrocephalus or meningitis. A bulging anterior fontanelle when the baby is calm is concerning for increased intracranial pressure, such as from hydrocephalus or meningitis. 91 / 100 What is the ideal duration of antibiotic treatment for culture-proven neonatal sepsis? 10-14 days 7 days 3-5 days 21-28 days Most neonates require 10â14 days of antibiotics for bloodstream infections. Most neonates require 10â14 days of antibiotics for bloodstream infections. 92 / 100 Why is careful oxygen titration important in preterm infants? To reduce risk of retinopathy and oxidative injury To increase cerebral blood flow To prevent polycythemia To prevent anemia Too much oxygen causes oxidative damage, increasing risk of ROP and chronic lung disease. Too much oxygen causes oxidative damage, increasing risk of ROP and chronic lung disease. 93 / 100 Which finding is most typical in a post-term baby? Peeling skin Lanugo Transparent skin Vernix caseosa Post-term neonates often have peeling or cracked skin, meconium staining, and reduced vernix. Post-term neonates often have peeling or cracked skin, meconium staining, and reduced vernix. 94 / 100 What is the role of caffeine in managing apnea of prematurity? Stimulates respiratory centers and reduces apnea Acts as a sedative Improves digestion Reduces brain oxygen demand Caffeine is a respiratory stimulant used to treat and reduce apnea episodes in preterm neonates. Caffeine is a respiratory stimulant used to treat and reduce apnea episodes in preterm neonates. 95 / 100 What is the recommended follow-up for a baby discharged before 48 hours of life? No follow-up if feeding well Follow-up bilirubin assessment within 2 days Assess only if baby becomes febrile Routine check at 2 weeks Follow-up is essential to detect late-onset hyperbilirubinemia after early discharge. Follow-up is essential to detect late-onset hyperbilirubinemia after early discharge. 96 / 100 What is a typical sign of neonatal sepsis on physical examination? Poor perfusion and hypotonia Increased muscle tone Active Moro reflex Jaundice alone Septic neonates often appear lethargic, poorly perfused, and hypotonic. Septic neonates often appear lethargic, poorly perfused, and hypotonic. 97 / 100 Which of the following is most consistent with a clavicle fracture at birth? Bilateral arm flaccidity Bluish discoloration Asymmetric Moro reflex Crepitus on palpation Crepitus and tenderness over the clavicle, along with asymmetric Moro reflex, strongly suggest a clavicle fracture. Crepitus and tenderness over the clavicle, along with asymmetric Moro reflex, strongly suggest a clavicle fracture. 98 / 100 What is a major challenge in thermoregulation for preterm babies? Excessive brown fat Overactive sweat glands Limited subcutaneous fat and poor vasoregulation Thick keratinized skin Preterm babies lack insulating fat and have immature skin, making them prone to hypothermia. Preterm babies lack insulating fat and have immature skin, making them prone to hypothermia. 99 / 100 What is the typical duration of therapeutic hypothermia for birth asphyxia? 12 hours 48 hours 24 hours 72 hours Cooling is typically maintained for 72 hours to maximize neuroprotection. Cooling is typically maintained for 72 hours to maximize neuroprotection. 100 / 100 Which sign is expected in a term babyâs neurologic exam? Head lag without any resistance Decerebrate posture Symmetrical limb movements Flaccid limbs Symmetrical movement of all limbs is a normal finding, suggesting intact motor pathways and healthy tone. Symmetrical movement of all limbs is a normal finding, suggesting intact motor pathways and healthy tone. Your score is The average score is 77% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0%